Nursing Elites

1. A patient with depression is prescribed fluoxetine. What is an important side effect for the nurse to monitor?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Dry mouth
• D. Suicidal thoughts

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a patient with depression is prescribed fluoxetine, the nurse should be vigilant for the potential side effect of increased risk of suicidal thoughts. Fluoxetine, like other antidepressants, may elevate the risk of suicidal thoughts, particularly during the initial phases of treatment. Monitoring the patient for any indications of heightened depression or suicidal ideation is crucial to ensure appropriate interventions are implemented promptly.

2. The nurse is planning care for a client with cirrhosis of the liver. Which intervention should the nurse include to reduce the risk of bleeding?

• A. Monitor for signs of infection.
• B. Limit the client's dietary protein intake.
• C. Administer vitamin K as prescribed.
• D. Encourage the client to increase fluid intake.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Administering vitamin K as prescribed can help reduce the risk of bleeding in clients with cirrhosis by promoting clotting factor production. Cirrhosis often leads to impaired liver function, affecting the synthesis of clotting factors. Vitamin K supplementation helps in the production of these essential clotting factors, thus reducing the risk of bleeding in clients with cirrhosis. Monitoring for signs of infection (Choice A) is important for overall care but not directly related to reducing the risk of bleeding in cirrhosis. Limiting dietary protein intake (Choice B) may be necessary in some cases of cirrhosis but does not directly address the risk of bleeding. Encouraging increased fluid intake (Choice D) is beneficial for various aspects of health but does not specifically target the risk of bleeding in cirrhosis.

3. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of the medication?

• A. Platelet count.
• B. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR).
• C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT).
• D. Fibrinogen level.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) are essential laboratory tests to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin (Coumadin) therapy. These tests help assess the clotting time and the desired anticoagulant effect of the medication. Monitoring PT and INR levels is crucial to ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range, reducing the risk of bleeding or clotting complications associated with warfarin therapy. Platelet count (Choice A) measures the number of platelets in the blood and is not specific for monitoring warfarin therapy. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) (Choice C) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin. Fibrinogen level (Choice D) assesses the amount of fibrinogen in the blood and is not a specific test for monitoring warfarin therapy.

4. An adolescent patient seeks care in the emergency department after sharing needles for heroin injection with a friend who has hepatitis B. To provide immediate protection from infection, what medication will the nurse administer?

• A. Corticosteroids
• B. Gamma globulin
• C. Hepatitis B vaccine
• D. Fresh frozen plasma

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the immediate need is to provide passive immunity to the adolescent patient. Gamma globulin contains antibodies against hepatitis B, which can offer immediate protection. The hepatitis B vaccine provides active immunity over time but is not immediate. Fresh frozen plasma and corticosteroids are not indicated for immediate protection against hepatitis B infection. Therefore, the correct choice is Gamma globulin as it can provide immediate passive immunity against hepatitis B.

5. A client with heart failure is receiving intravenous furosemide (Lasix). Which assessment finding indicates that the medication is having the desired effect?

• A. Decreased peripheral edema.
• B. Elevated blood pressure.
• C. Increased heart rate.
• D. Decreased urine output.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Decreased peripheral edema.' In a client with heart failure receiving furosemide, decreased peripheral edema indicates that the medication is effectively reducing fluid overload. Furosemide is a diuretic that helps the body eliminate excess fluid and salt through increased urine output, leading to a reduction in peripheral edema, which is a common symptom of heart failure. Monitoring and recognizing this improvement in edema are crucial in managing heart failure effectively.

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