a patient with depression is prescribed fluoxetine what is an important side effect for the nurse to monitor
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1. A patient with depression is prescribed fluoxetine. What is an important side effect for the nurse to monitor?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a patient with depression is prescribed fluoxetine, the nurse should be vigilant for the potential side effect of increased risk of suicidal thoughts. Fluoxetine, like other antidepressants, may elevate the risk of suicidal thoughts, particularly during the initial phases of treatment. Monitoring the patient for any indications of heightened depression or suicidal ideation is crucial to ensure appropriate interventions are implemented promptly.

2. A patient with rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed methotrexate. What should the nurse include in the patient teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Patients prescribed methotrexate should be advised to take folic acid supplements as prescribed. Methotrexate can deplete folic acid levels, leading to side effects. By taking folic acid supplements as directed, the patient can reduce the risk of experiencing adverse effects associated with methotrexate therapy. It is important to note that the effects of methotrexate may not be immediate, so realistic expectations should be set with the patient. Alcohol should be avoided while taking methotrexate due to potential interactions and increased risk of liver toxicity. There is no specific recommendation to limit fluid intake to 1 liter per day in relation to methotrexate therapy.

3. When should the charge nurse intervene based on the observed behavior?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The hospital transporter reading a client's history and physical without a legitimate need violates patient confidentiality. This behavior requires immediate intervention to protect the client's privacy and confidentiality rights.

4. A 30-year-old woman presents with fatigue, polyuria, and polydipsia. Laboratory tests reveal hyperglycemia and ketonuria. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The clinical presentation of a 30-year-old woman with fatigue, polyuria, polydipsia, hyperglycemia, and ketonuria is highly suggestive of type 1 diabetes mellitus. Type 1 diabetes mellitus is characterized by autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells, leading to insulin deficiency and subsequent hyperglycemia. The presence of ketonuria indicates the breakdown of fats for energy due to the lack of insulin. In contrast, type 2 diabetes mellitus typically presents with gradual onset and is often associated with insulin resistance rather than absolute insulin deficiency. Diabetes insipidus is characterized by polyuria and polydipsia but is not associated with hyperglycemia or ketonuria. Hyperthyroidism may present with symptoms like fatigue but does not typically cause hyperglycemia or ketonuria.

5. A 28-year-old woman presents with abdominal pain, diarrhea, and rectal bleeding. She has a history of similar episodes in the past. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The constellation of symptoms including abdominal pain, diarrhea, and rectal bleeding in a young woman with a history of similar episodes is highly suggestive of ulcerative colitis. This chronic inflammatory condition primarily affects the colon and rectum, leading to symptoms such as bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain, and urgency. The recurrent nature of her symptoms and the presence of rectal bleeding further support this diagnosis over other conditions listed, such as irritable bowel syndrome, celiac disease, or diverticulitis, which typically do not present with the same combination of symptoms and history.

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