Nursing Elites

1. A patient with depression is prescribed fluoxetine. What is an important side effect for the nurse to monitor?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Dry mouth
• D. Suicidal thoughts

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a patient with depression is prescribed fluoxetine, the nurse should be vigilant for the potential side effect of increased risk of suicidal thoughts. Fluoxetine, like other antidepressants, may elevate the risk of suicidal thoughts, particularly during the initial phases of treatment. Monitoring the patient for any indications of heightened depression or suicidal ideation is crucial to ensure appropriate interventions are implemented promptly.

2. What action should the healthcare provider take to reduce the risk of vesicant extravasation in a client receiving intravenous chemotherapy?

• A. Administer an antiemetic before starting the chemotherapy.
• B. Instruct the client to drink plenty of fluids during the treatment.
• C. Keep the head of the bed elevated until the treatment is completed.
• D. Monitor the client's intravenous site hourly during the treatment.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Monitoring the intravenous site hourly is essential to identify early signs of extravasation, such as swelling or pain, which can help prevent tissue damage. Prompt detection allows for immediate intervention, minimizing the risk of serious complications associated with vesicant extravasation.

3. While assessing a client with diabetes mellitus, the nurse observes an absence of hair growth on the client's legs. What additional assessment provides further data to support this finding?

• A. Palpate for the presence of femoral pulses bilaterally.
• B. Assess for the presence of a positive Homan's sign.
• C. Observe the appearance of the skin on the client's legs.
• D. Watch the client's posture and balance during ambulation.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The absence of hair growth on the legs in a client with diabetes mellitus can be indicative of poor circulation due to compromised blood flow. Assessing the appearance of the skin on the client's legs is crucial as it can reveal additional signs of impaired circulation, such as changes in color, temperature, and the presence of ulcers or wounds. This information aids in the comprehensive evaluation of the client's vascular status and guides appropriate interventions to prevent potential complications.

4. An 82-year-old woman with no past medical history presents to your clinic complaining of arthritic symptoms. She is not taking any medications but needs something for her arthritis. You want to start her on a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) but are concerned about her age and the risk of peptic ulcers. As she has to pay for her medications out-of-pocket and requests the most cost-effective option, what is the most appropriate treatment plan?

• A. Prescribe an inexpensive NSAID alone
• B. Prescribe an inexpensive NSAID and misoprostol
• C. Prescribe celecoxib
• D. Prescribe an inexpensive NSAID and sucralfate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the most appropriate treatment plan would be to prescribe an inexpensive NSAID alone. While the elderly woman is at a higher risk of developing NSAID-related toxicity, prophylaxis with misoprostol or sucralfate is not recommended in the absence of a history of peptic ulcer disease or abdominal symptoms. Celecoxib, a selective COX-2 inhibitor, may be a more expensive option than traditional NSAIDs. Considering the patient's preference for the most inexpensive option and the lack of specific risk factors, starting with a standalone NSAID is the most suitable approach.

5. The client has received 250 ml of 0.9% normal saline through the IV line in the last hour. The client is now tachypneic and has a pulse rate of 120 beats/minute, with a pulse volume of +4. In addition to reporting the assessment findings to the healthcare provider, what action should the nurse implement?

• A. Discontinue the IV and apply pressure at the site.
• B. Decrease the saline to a keep-open rate.
• C. Increase the rate of the current IV solution.
• D. Change the IV fluid to 0.45% normal saline at the same rate.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is showing signs of fluid overload with tachypnea and a high pulse rate. Decreasing the saline to a keep-open rate is appropriate to prevent further fluid volume excess. This action allows for IV access to be maintained while reducing the fluid administered, helping to manage the symptoms of fluid overload.

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