ATI LPN
ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam 2019 Quizlet
1. The nurse is caring for four clients: Client A, who has emphysema and an oxygen saturation of 94%; Client B, with a postoperative hemoglobin of 8.7 g/dL; Client C, newly admitted with a potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L; and Client D, scheduled for an appendectomy with a white blood cell count of 15,000/mm3. What intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Increase Client A's oxygen to 4 liters per minute via nasal cannula.
- B. Determine if Client B has two units of packed cells available in the blood bank.
- C. Ask the dietitian to add a banana to Client C's breakfast tray.
- D. Inform Client D that surgery is likely to be delayed until the infection is treated.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A high white blood cell count, as seen in Client D, indicates infection, which may require postponing surgery to treat the infection adequately. It is crucial to address the underlying infection before proceeding with the appendectomy to prevent complications and ensure a successful surgical outcome.
2. A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed tiotropium. What is the primary purpose of this medication?
- A. Reduce mucus production
- B. Relieve bronchospasm
- C. Suppress cough
- D. Thin respiratory secretions
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Tiotropium is a long-acting bronchodilator used to relieve bronchospasm and improve airflow in patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). It works by relaxing the muscles around the airways, leading to bronchodilation and improved breathing, making it an essential treatment in managing COPD symptoms.
3. A patient with gout is prescribed allopurinol. What should the nurse include in the patient teaching?
- A. Take the medication with food.
- B. Increase intake of high-purine foods.
- C. Limit fluid intake to 1 liter per day.
- D. Expect immediate pain relief.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When educating a patient prescribed allopurinol for gout, the nurse should emphasize taking the medication with food to reduce the risk of gastrointestinal upset. It is important to instruct the patient to maintain adequate hydration by consuming plenty of fluids, preferably water, to help prevent kidney stone formation and facilitate the drug's effectiveness. Allopurinol does not provide immediate pain relief but rather works to lower uric acid levels over time, reducing the frequency of gout attacks. Choices B and C are incorrect as increasing high-purine foods can exacerbate gout symptoms, and limiting fluid intake to 1 liter per day is not recommended for gout patients who should maintain good hydration. Choice D is incorrect because allopurinol does not offer immediate pain relief.
4. A 56-year-old white male complains of intermittent dysphagia for the past three months, particularly with the ingestion of meat. He has no difficulties swallowing liquids. He has no history of smoking, uses no medications, and has had no weight loss. What test would be best to evaluate him?
- A. Upper endoscopy
- B. Chest/abdominal CT scan
- C. Barium swallow
- D. Esophageal manometry
Correct answer: C
Rationale: For a patient presenting with intermittent dysphagia, especially with solids like meat, a barium swallow is the most appropriate initial test. In this case, the classic presentation suggests a Schatzki’s ring, which is best visualized through a barium study. Upper endoscopy may not always visualize Schatzki’s rings effectively. Chest/abdominal CT scan and esophageal manometry are not the preferred tests for diagnosing Schatzki’s rings. Treatment for Schatzki’s rings often involves bougie dilatation, and no further therapy may be necessary.
5. A client with heart failure is receiving intravenous furosemide (Lasix). Which assessment finding indicates that the medication is having the desired effect?
- A. Decreased peripheral edema.
- B. Elevated blood pressure.
- C. Increased heart rate.
- D. Decreased urine output.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Decreased peripheral edema.' In a client with heart failure receiving furosemide, decreased peripheral edema indicates that the medication is effectively reducing fluid overload. Furosemide is a diuretic that helps the body eliminate excess fluid and salt through increased urine output, leading to a reduction in peripheral edema, which is a common symptom of heart failure. Monitoring and recognizing this improvement in edema are crucial in managing heart failure effectively.
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