Nursing Elites

1. A young adult female client is seen in the emergency department for a minor injury following a motor vehicle collision. She states she is very angry at the person who hit her car. What is the best nursing response?

• A. You are lucky to be alive. Be grateful no one was killed.'
• B. I understand your car was not seriously damaged.'
• C. You are upset that this incident has brought you here.'
• D. Have you ever been in the emergency department before?'

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Validating the client's feelings can help her express and manage her emotions effectively.

2. A client in acute renal failure has a serum potassium level of 6.3 mEq/L. What intervention can the nurse expect the healthcare provider to prescribe?

• A. Nitrofurantoin (Macrodantin) orally.
• B. Erythropoietin (Epogen) intravenously.
• C. Kayexalate retention enema.
• D. Azathioprine (Imuran) orally.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In acute renal failure with high serum potassium levels, the healthcare provider is likely to prescribe a Kayexalate retention enema. Kayexalate is a medication used to lower elevated potassium levels by promoting potassium excretion through the gastrointestinal tract, thus aiding in the management of hyperkalemia in clients with renal failure.

3. A client has developed hepatic encephalopathy secondary to cirrhosis and is receiving care on the medical unit. The client's current medication regimen includes lactulose four times daily. What desired outcome should the nurse relate to this pharmacologic intervention?

• A. Two to three soft bowel movements daily
• B. Significant increase in appetite and food intake
• C. Absence of nausea and vomiting
• D. Absence of blood or mucus in stool

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lactulose is used in hepatic encephalopathy to reduce blood ammonia levels by promoting bowel movements. The desired outcome of lactulose therapy is typically two to three soft bowel movements daily, which helps in eliminating excess ammonia from the body, thus improving the client's condition.

4. A 40-year-old woman presents with fatigue, polyuria, and polydipsia. Laboratory tests reveal hyperglycemia and ketonuria. What is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Type 1 diabetes mellitus
• B. Type 2 diabetes mellitus
• C. Diabetes insipidus
• D. Hyperthyroidism

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The combination of symptoms including fatigue, polyuria, polydipsia, along with laboratory findings of hyperglycemia and ketonuria strongly suggest type 1 diabetes mellitus. In type 1 diabetes mellitus, there is a deficiency of insulin leading to high blood sugar levels (hyperglycemia) and the breakdown of fats producing ketones, causing ketonuria. Type 2 diabetes mellitus typically presents differently and is more common in older individuals. Diabetes insipidus is characterized by excessive thirst and urination due to a deficiency of antidiuretic hormone, distinct from the provided clinical scenario. Hyperthyroidism may present with some overlapping symptoms like fatigue, but it does not account for the specific laboratory findings of hyperglycemia and ketonuria seen in this case.

5. What dietary advice should the nurse provide to help reduce the occurrence of hot flashes in a post-menopausal client?

• A. Increase intake of spicy foods.
• B. Limit caffeine and alcohol consumption.
• C. Consume a high-protein diet.
• D. Eat more dairy products.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Limiting caffeine and alcohol consumption is recommended to help reduce the frequency of hot flashes in post-menopausal individuals. Caffeine and alcohol can trigger hot flashes and worsen their occurrence. Encouraging the client to reduce these stimulants in their diet may help alleviate hot flashes and improve their quality of life.

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