Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic renal failure is prescribed epoetin alfa (Epogen). Which outcome indicates that the medication is effective?

• A. Increased urine output.
• B. Decreased blood pressure.
• C. Improved hemoglobin levels.
• D. Stable potassium levels.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Epoetin alfa is a medication that stimulates red blood cell production. Therefore, in a client with chronic renal failure, an effective outcome of epoetin alfa therapy would be an improvement in hemoglobin levels. This indicates that the medication is working as intended by addressing anemia, a common complication of chronic renal failure. Increased urine output (choice A) is not directly related to the action of epoetin alfa. Decreased blood pressure (choice B) is not a primary expected outcome of epoetin alfa therapy. Stable potassium levels (choice D) are important but not a direct indicator of the effectiveness of epoetin alfa in this context.

2. The healthcare professional is caring for a client with a chest tube following a thoracotomy. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber.
• B. Serosanguineous drainage in the collection chamber.
• C. Intermittent bubbling in the suction control chamber.
• D. Chest tube secured to the client's chest wall.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber indicates an air leak, which requires immediate intervention to prevent complications such as pneumothorax. An air leak can lead to ineffective lung expansion, respiratory distress, and compromised gas exchange. Therefore, prompt action is necessary to maintain the integrity of the closed drainage system and prevent further complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because serosanguineous drainage is an expected finding post-thoracotomy, intermittent bubbling in the suction control chamber is normal, and having the chest tube secured to the client's chest wall is essential for stability and proper functioning.

3. A 56-year-old woman with rheumatoid arthritis has severe joint pain and swelling in her hands. She has a history of peptic ulcer disease five years ago but presently has no GI symptoms. You elect to start her on an NSAID. Which of the following is correct?

• A. Proton-pump inhibitors and H2-blockers are equally effective in prophylaxis against NSAID-related GI toxicity.
• B. Misoprostol is superior to an H2-blocker in prophylaxis against NSAID-related GI toxicity.
• C. Sucralfate is not the drug of choice for prophylaxis in this patient.
• D. H. pylori infection can alter the risk for an NSAID-induced ulcer.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the patient's history of peptic ulcer disease puts her at risk for NSAID-related GI toxicity. Misoprostol and proton-pump inhibitors have shown superiority over H2-blockers in preventing NSAID-related GI toxicity. H. pylori infection can indeed increase the risk of an NSAID-induced ulcer in infected patients who are starting NSAID therapy. Sucralfate has not been proven to be effective in prophylaxis against NSAID-related GI toxicity. Therefore, the correct choice is B, as misoprostol is the preferred option over an H2-blocker in this context.

4. A 60-year-old male client is admitted to the hospital with the complaint of right knee pain for the past week. His right knee and calf are warm and edematous. He has a history of diabetes and arthritis. Which neurological assessment action should the nurse perform for this client?

• A. Glasgow Coma Scale
• B. Assess pulses, paresthesia, and paralysis distal to the right knee
• C. Assess pulses, paresthesia, and paralysis proximal to the right knee
• D. Optic nerve using an ophthalmoscope

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should assess pulses, paresthesia, and paralysis distal to the right knee to evaluate for neurovascular compromise. This assessment helps determine the perfusion and sensation of the lower extremity, which is crucial in identifying potential vascular or nerve damage that may be causing the client's symptoms.

5. A client who has been receiving treatment for depression with a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) reports experiencing decreased libido. What is the best response by the nurse?

• A. Decreased libido is a common side effect of SSRIs and may improve over time.
• B. I will notify your healthcare provider to discuss possible medication changes.
• C. You should take your medication with food to reduce side effects.
• D. Increase your daily exercise to help manage this side effect.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client reports experiencing decreased libido while taking SSRIs, it is important for the nurse to notify the healthcare provider to discuss potential medication adjustments. This side effect can significantly impact a client's quality of life, and addressing it promptly by involving the healthcare provider is crucial in providing holistic care. Choices A, C, and D do not directly address the issue of decreased libido caused by SSRIs. Simply waiting for improvement over time, altering the administration of medication with food, or increasing exercise are not appropriate strategies for managing this specific side effect.

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