Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic renal failure is prescribed epoetin alfa (Epogen). Which outcome indicates that the medication is effective?

• A. Increased urine output.
• B. Decreased blood pressure.
• C. Improved hemoglobin levels.
• D. Stable potassium levels.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Epoetin alfa is a medication that stimulates red blood cell production. Therefore, in a client with chronic renal failure, an effective outcome of epoetin alfa therapy would be an improvement in hemoglobin levels. This indicates that the medication is working as intended by addressing anemia, a common complication of chronic renal failure. Increased urine output (choice A) is not directly related to the action of epoetin alfa. Decreased blood pressure (choice B) is not a primary expected outcome of epoetin alfa therapy. Stable potassium levels (choice D) are important but not a direct indicator of the effectiveness of epoetin alfa in this context.

2. A patient with chronic pain is prescribed gabapentin. What is the primary purpose of this medication?

• A. Relieve neuropathic pain
• B. Reduce inflammation
• C. Enhance opioid analgesia
• D. Suppress cough

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Gabapentin is primarily prescribed to relieve neuropathic pain. It works by stabilizing electrical activity in the nerves, making it effective in managing conditions such as diabetic neuropathy, postherpetic neuralgia, and other forms of chronic pain originating from nerve damage.

3. A patient is being cared for after bariatric surgery, and the healthcare provider is assessing for hemorrhage. What is a sign of hemorrhage?

• A. Increase in blood pressure
• B. Frank red bleeding from the surgical site
• C. Clear drainage from the surgical wound
• D. Decrease in heart rate

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Frank red bleeding from the surgical site is a significant sign of hemorrhage that warrants immediate attention. It indicates active bleeding that needs to be addressed promptly to prevent further complications.

4. The healthcare provider in the outpatient clinic has obtained health histories for these new patients. Which patient may need referral for genetic testing?

• A. 35-year-old patient whose maternal grandparents died after strokes at ages 90 and 96
• B. 18-year-old patient with a positive pregnancy test whose first child has cerebral palsy
• C. 34-year-old patient who has a sibling with newly diagnosed polycystic kidney disease
• D. 50-year-old patient with a history of cigarette smoking who is complaining of dyspnea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The 34-year-old patient who has a sibling with newly diagnosed polycystic kidney disease may need referral for genetic testing. Polycystic kidney disease is an autosomal dominant disorder that can be asymptomatic until later in life. Presymptomatic testing can provide valuable information for guiding lifestyle and family planning decisions. The other patients do not present indications for genetic testing based on the information provided in their health histories. The 35-year-old patient's maternal grandparents' strokes are not indicative of a need for genetic testing. The 18-year-old patient's child having cerebral palsy is not a direct indication for genetic testing of the patient herself. The 50-year-old patient's symptoms are more likely related to smoking and respiratory issues, not genetic predisposition to a specific disease.

5. A 68-year-old man with a history of diabetes, hypertension, and coronary artery disease (s/p coronary artery bypass graft two years ago) presents to the emergency room with fevers and left-sided abdominal pain. His physical examination reveals a temperature of 101.5°F, pulse 96, and blood pressure of 135/80. His abdomen is soft with moderate left lower quadrant tenderness. There is no rebound or guarding. Bowel sounds are present. A CT scan is done which reveals inflammation around an area of the left colon. The next step in his workup/management should be

• A. Antibiotic therapy with ciprofloxacin and metronidazole
• B. Referral for urgent colonoscopy
• C. Referral to a surgeon for immediate hemicolectomy
• D. Barium enema

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The patient's presentation is consistent with diverticulitis without evidence of perforation or abscess formation on CT scan. During acute infections, procedures like barium enema and colonoscopy should be avoided to prevent the risk of perforation. Urgent surgery is not indicated initially. The appropriate next step is to start antibiotic therapy aimed at gram-negative aerobes and anaerobes, such as ciprofloxacin and metronidazole, which are the initial treatment of choice for diverticulitis.

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