ATI LPN
ATI PN Adult Medical Surgical 2019
1. A client with chronic renal failure is prescribed epoetin alfa (Epogen). Which outcome indicates that the medication is effective?
- A. Increased urine output.
- B. Decreased blood pressure.
- C. Improved hemoglobin levels.
- D. Stable potassium levels.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Epoetin alfa is a medication that stimulates red blood cell production. Therefore, in a client with chronic renal failure, an effective outcome of epoetin alfa therapy would be an improvement in hemoglobin levels. This indicates that the medication is working as intended by addressing anemia, a common complication of chronic renal failure. Increased urine output (choice A) is not directly related to the action of epoetin alfa. Decreased blood pressure (choice B) is not a primary expected outcome of epoetin alfa therapy. Stable potassium levels (choice D) are important but not a direct indicator of the effectiveness of epoetin alfa in this context.
2. A 55-year-old man presents with fatigue, pruritus, and jaundice. Laboratory tests reveal elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase levels. Imaging shows dilated intrahepatic bile ducts and a normal common bile duct. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Primary biliary cirrhosis
- B. Primary sclerosing cholangitis
- C. Gallstones
- D. Pancreatic cancer
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The constellation of symptoms including fatigue, pruritus, and jaundice, along with elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase levels, and imaging findings of dilated intrahepatic bile ducts and a normal common bile duct, are classical features of primary biliary cirrhosis.
3. A client with liver cirrhosis and ascites is being treated with spironolactone. What is a key nursing consideration for this medication?
- A. Monitoring for signs of hyperkalemia
- B. Checking for signs of hypoglycemia
- C. Assessing for signs of dehydration
- D. Observing for symptoms of hyponatremia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which can lead to hyperkalemia as it helps retain potassium in the body. Therefore, monitoring for signs of hyperkalemia such as muscle weakness, arrhythmias, or ECG changes is crucial to prevent potential complications.
4. What is/are the possible cause(s) of acute pancreatitis in this patient?
- A. HIV
- B. Cytomegalovirus
- C. Dideoxyinosine (ddI)
- D. Pentamidine
Correct answer: B
Rationale: This patient presents with symptoms and lab findings consistent with acute pancreatitis. Cytomegalovirus is a common viral infection associated with pancreatitis. In patients with AIDS, the pancreas can be affected by various infections (e.g., cryptococcus, Mycobacterium tuberculosis, candida, Toxoplasma gondii) and medications (such as ddI, pentamidine, trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole, metronidazole) can also lead to acute pancreatitis. While HIV infection predisposes individuals to various opportunistic infections, in this case, the most likely cause of the acute pancreatitis is cytomegalovirus infection.
5. A 56-year-old woman presents to discuss the results of her recent upper endoscopy. She was having some mild abdominal pain, so she underwent the procedure, which revealed an ulcer in the antrum of the stomach. Biopsy of the lesion revealed the presence of H. pylori. All of the following statements regarding her condition are correct except
- A. H. pylori has been associated with gastric MALT (mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue)
- B. Reinfection is rare despite adequate treatment
- C. Triple drug therapy has been shown to be more effective than dual drug therapy
- D. If her H. pylori IgG antibody titer was elevated prior to therapy, it can be used to monitor treatment efficacy
Correct answer: B
Rationale: H. pylori is associated with a majority of peptic ulcer disease cases and has links to gastric MALT and adenocarcinoma. Triple drug therapy is more effective than dual therapy. Reinfection after adequate treatment is rare. While urea breath testing is a better diagnostic tool, quantitative serology can monitor treatment efficacy. A 30% decrease in IgG titer should occur post-therapy, indicating effectiveness.
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