a client with chronic renal failure is prescribed erythropoietin epogen which outcome indicates that the medication is effective
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

ATI PN Adult Medical Surgical 2019

1. A client with chronic renal failure is prescribed erythropoietin (Epogen). Which outcome indicates that the medication is effective?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Improved hemoglobin levels. Erythropoietin (Epogen) stimulates red blood cell production, leading to an increase in hemoglobin levels in clients with chronic renal failure. Monitoring hemoglobin levels is crucial to assess the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy in managing anemia associated with chronic renal failure. While increased urine output, decreased blood pressure, and stable potassium levels are important parameters to monitor in clients with renal failure, they are not direct indicators of the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy.

2. What action should the nurse take to prevent tracheal tissue damage in a client with a tracheostomy?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To prevent tracheal tissue damage in a client with a tracheostomy, the nurse should use the minimal leak technique when inflating the cuff. This method helps avoid excessive pressure on the tracheal tissue, thereby reducing the risk of damage. Choice A is incorrect because securing the tracheostomy ties too tightly can cause pressure and tissue damage. Choice B is incorrect as changing the tracheostomy tube daily is not necessary unless there is a specific clinical indication. Choice D is incorrect as cleaning the stoma with hydrogen peroxide can irritate the skin and mucous membranes, potentially leading to damage.

3. What health promotion teaching should prioritize to prevent drug-induced hepatitis?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Adhering to dosing recommendations of over-the-counter analgesics is crucial in preventing drug-induced hepatitis. Overdosing on analgesics can lead to liver damage, making it essential to follow the recommended dosages to reduce the risk of hepatotoxicity.

4. Why is a client with ascites scheduled for a paracentesis procedure?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: "To relieve abdominal pressure." Paracentesis is performed to drain accumulated fluid in the peritoneal cavity, providing symptomatic relief for clients with ascites. Choice A is incorrect because paracentesis is not a diagnostic procedure for liver disease. Choice C is incorrect as assessing kidney function would typically involve different procedures. Choice D is incorrect as paracentesis does not directly impact blood pressure.

5. A client is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Deep, rapid respirations (Kussmaul breathing). This is a sign of severe acidosis commonly seen in diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) and requires immediate intervention. Kussmaul breathing helps to compensate for the metabolic acidosis by blowing off carbon dioxide. Prompt intervention is necessary to prevent further deterioration and potential respiratory failure. Fruity breath odor (Choice A) is a classic sign of DKA but does not require immediate intervention. While a blood glucose level of 450 mg/dL (Choice B) is high, it does not pose an immediate threat to the client's life. Serum potassium of 5.2 mEq/L (Choice D) is slightly elevated but not the most critical finding that requires immediate intervention in this scenario.

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