ATI LPN
ATI Adult Medical Surgical
1. The nurse is administering sevelamer (RenaGel) during lunch to a client with end-stage renal disease (ESRD). The client asks the nurse to bring the medication later. The nurse should describe which action of RenaGel as an explanation for taking it with meals?
- A. Prevents indigestion associated with the ingestion of spicy foods.
- B. Binds with phosphorus in foods and prevents absorption.
- C. Promotes stomach emptying and prevents gastric reflux.
- D. Buffers hydrochloric acid and prevents gastric erosion.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Sevelamer (RenaGel) binds with phosphorus in foods and prevents its absorption. By taking RenaGel with meals, the binding of phosphorus helps to reduce the phosphorus load absorbed from food, thus aiding in the management of hyperphosphatemia in clients with ESRD.
2. A client with hepatic encephalopathy is being treated with lactulose. What is an expected outcome of this treatment?
- A. Reduction in blood ammonia levels
- B. Improvement in liver enzyme levels
- C. Decrease in bilirubin levels
- D. Increase in urine output
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Lactulose is used to treat hepatic encephalopathy by reducing blood ammonia levels through promoting its excretion via the intestines. Elevated ammonia levels contribute to the development of encephalopathy symptoms, so by lowering them, the client's neurological status can improve.
3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client with severe dehydration. Which finding indicates a need for immediate intervention?
- A. Heart rate of 110 beats per minute.
- B. Blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg.
- C. Urine output of 20 ml/hour.
- D. Dry mucous membranes.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A urine output of 20 ml/hour indicates severe dehydration and impaired renal function. This finding suggests a critical state where the kidneys are conserving water, leading to reduced urine output. Immediate intervention is required to restore fluid balance and prevent further complications associated with severe dehydration. Choice A, a heart rate of 110 beats per minute, may indicate dehydration but is not as severe as the critically low urine output. Choice B, a blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg, can be seen in dehydration but is not as concerning as the extremely low urine output. Choice D, dry mucous membranes, is a common sign of dehydration but does not require immediate intervention compared to the severely reduced urine output.
4. A young adult female client is seen in the emergency department for a minor injury following a motor vehicle collision. She states she is very angry at the person who hit her car. What is the best nursing response?
- A. You are lucky to be alive. Be grateful no one was killed.'
- B. I understand your car was not seriously damaged.'
- C. You are upset that this incident has brought you here.'
- D. Have you ever been in the emergency department before?'
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Validating the client's feelings can help her express and manage her emotions effectively.
5. What is the primary action of amlodipine when prescribed to a patient with hypertension?
- A. Increase heart rate
- B. Reduce blood pressure
- C. Lower cholesterol levels
- D. Decrease blood sugar levels
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker that works by relaxing the blood vessels, leading to a reduction in blood pressure. This medication does not increase heart rate, lower cholesterol levels, or decrease blood sugar levels.
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