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ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam 2019 Quizlet
1. What action should the healthcare provider take to reduce the risk of vesicant extravasation in a client receiving intravenous chemotherapy?
- A. Administer an antiemetic before starting the chemotherapy.
- B. Instruct the client to drink plenty of fluids during the treatment.
- C. Keep the head of the bed elevated until the treatment is completed.
- D. Monitor the client's intravenous site hourly during the treatment.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Monitoring the intravenous site hourly is essential to identify early signs of extravasation, such as swelling or pain, which can help prevent tissue damage. Prompt detection allows for immediate intervention, minimizing the risk of serious complications associated with vesicant extravasation.
2. A patient is being cared for after bariatric surgery, and the healthcare provider is assessing for hemorrhage. What is a sign of hemorrhage?
- A. Increase in blood pressure
- B. Frank red bleeding from the surgical site
- C. Clear drainage from the surgical wound
- D. Decrease in heart rate
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Frank red bleeding from the surgical site is a significant sign of hemorrhage that warrants immediate attention. It indicates active bleeding that needs to be addressed promptly to prevent further complications.
3. A patient with schizophrenia is prescribed olanzapine. What is an important side effect for the healthcare provider to monitor?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Weight gain
- C. Hypoglycemia
- D. Bradycardia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Weight gain. Olanzapine, an atypical antipsychotic, is known to cause significant weight gain and metabolic syndrome. It is crucial for healthcare providers to closely monitor patients for these side effects to prevent complications and provide appropriate interventions.
4. A client with liver cirrhosis is being educated about managing their condition. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I will avoid drinking alcohol
- B. I need to limit my salt intake
- C. I can take acetaminophen for pain
- D. I should eat a balanced diet
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Clients with liver cirrhosis should avoid acetaminophen because it can cause further liver damage. Acetaminophen is metabolized in the liver, and in individuals with liver disease, it can lead to liver toxicity. Therefore, clients with liver cirrhosis should use alternative pain medications that do not affect the liver, such as nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) or opioids as prescribed by their healthcare provider. Choices A, B, and D are correct statements for managing liver cirrhosis. Avoiding alcohol helps prevent further liver damage, limiting salt intake helps manage fluid retention and complications like ascites, and eating a balanced diet supports overall health and helps prevent malnutrition.
5. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus presents to the clinic with a foot ulcer. Which instruction should the nurse provide to the client to promote healing of the ulcer?
- A. Apply a heating pad to the ulcer twice daily.
- B. Wear tight-fitting shoes to protect the ulcer.
- C. Keep the ulcer clean and dry.
- D. Limit walking to reduce pressure on the ulcer.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: "Keep the ulcer clean and dry." For clients with diabetes mellitus, it is crucial to maintain foot ulcers clean and dry to prevent infection and promote healing. Moist environments can lead to bacterial growth and delay healing. Applying a heating pad (Choice A) can increase the risk of burns and further damage the ulcer. Wearing tight-fitting shoes (Choice B) can cause friction and pressure on the ulcer, hindering the healing process. Limiting walking (Choice D) excessively can affect circulation and delay healing. Therefore, the nurse should instruct the client to keep the ulcer clean and dry for optimal wound care management.
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