Nursing Elites

1. What action should the healthcare provider take to reduce the risk of vesicant extravasation in a client receiving intravenous chemotherapy?

• A. Administer an antiemetic before starting the chemotherapy.
• B. Instruct the client to drink plenty of fluids during the treatment.
• C. Keep the head of the bed elevated until the treatment is completed.
• D. Monitor the client's intravenous site hourly during the treatment.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Monitoring the intravenous site hourly is essential to identify early signs of extravasation, such as swelling or pain, which can help prevent tissue damage. Prompt detection allows for immediate intervention, minimizing the risk of serious complications associated with vesicant extravasation.

2. What dietary advice should the nurse provide to help reduce the occurrence of hot flashes in a post-menopausal client?

• A. Increase intake of spicy foods.
• B. Limit caffeine and alcohol consumption.
• C. Consume a high-protein diet.
• D. Eat more dairy products.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Limiting caffeine and alcohol consumption is recommended to help reduce the frequency of hot flashes in post-menopausal individuals. Caffeine and alcohol can trigger hot flashes and worsen their occurrence. Encouraging the client to reduce these stimulants in their diet may help alleviate hot flashes and improve their quality of life.

3. The client is receiving intravenous (IV) morphine for pain control. Which assessment finding requires the most immediate intervention?

• A. Drowsiness.
• B. Itching.
• C. Nausea.
• D. Respiratory rate of 8 breaths per minute.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 8 breaths per minute indicates severe respiratory depression, a life-threatening side effect of opioid therapy. Immediate intervention is crucial to prevent respiratory failure. Monitoring and managing respiratory status are critical in clients receiving opioids to prevent adverse events. Drowsiness, itching, and nausea are common side effects of morphine but are not as immediately life-threatening as severe respiratory depression.

4. A 65-year-old white female with a history of arthritis, congestive heart failure, and osteoporosis complains of odynophagia for two weeks. A barium swallow shows a moderate-sized crater just above the gastroesophageal junction. What is the least likely contributor to this condition?

• A. NSAIDs
• B. Alendronate
• C. Iron sulfate
• D. Calcium channel blocker

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this case, the least likely contributor to the condition described is the calcium channel blocker. NSAIDs, alendronate, and iron sulfate have been associated with pill-induced esophagitis, which can present with symptoms like odynophagia and erosions or ulcers on imaging studies. Pill-induced esophagitis is often due to factors like inadequate water intake with the medication, being in a supine position, or underlying motility disorders. Discontinuation of the offending medication typically leads to rapid resolution of esophageal injury. Acid-suppressive therapy may be used to prevent reflux-related damage.

5. A client is on a mechanical ventilator. Which client response indicates that the neuromuscular blocker tubocurarine chloride (Tubarine) is effective?

• A. The client's extremities are paralyzed.
• B. The peripheral nerve stimulator causes twitching.
• C. The client clenches fist upon command.
• D. The client's Glasgow Coma Scale score is 14.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Tubocurarine chloride is a neuromuscular blocker that works by causing paralysis of skeletal muscles. Therefore, if the client's extremities are paralyzed, it indicates that the medication is effective in achieving the desired muscle relaxation necessary for mechanical ventilation. Choices B and C are incorrect as they suggest muscle activity, which would not be expected with the administration of a neuromuscular blocker. Choice D is unrelated to the effectiveness of tubocurarine chloride.

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