a client with peptic ulcer disease is prescribed ranitidine zantac which statement by the client indicates the need for further teaching
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1. A client with peptic ulcer disease is prescribed ranitidine (Zantac). Which statement by the client indicates the need for further teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client's statement that they should take ranitidine with meals indicates a need for further teaching. Ranitidine is typically taken at bedtime or before meals to be most effective in reducing stomach acid. Taking it with meals may not provide the optimal therapeutic effect.

2. A client with Addison's disease is being treated with fludrocortisone (Florinef). Which electrolyte imbalance should the nurse monitor for?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Fludrocortisone, such as Florinef, is a mineralocorticoid that promotes sodium retention and potassium excretion, which can lead to hypernatremia. Therefore, the nurse should closely monitor for hypernatremia when a client with Addison's disease is being treated with fludrocortisone. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is incorrect because fludrocortisone promotes potassium excretion, leading to hypokalemia rather than hyperkalemia. Hyponatremia (Choice B) is incorrect as fludrocortisone promotes sodium retention. Hypocalcemia (Choice D) is unrelated to the action of fludrocortisone.

3. A 56-year-old white male complains of intermittent dysphagia for the past three months, particularly with the ingestion of meat. He has no difficulties swallowing liquids. He has no history of smoking, uses no medications, and has had no weight loss. What test would be best to evaluate him?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: For a patient presenting with intermittent dysphagia, especially with solids like meat, a barium swallow is the most appropriate initial test. In this case, the classic presentation suggests a Schatzki’s ring, which is best visualized through a barium study. Upper endoscopy may not always visualize Schatzki’s rings effectively. Chest/abdominal CT scan and esophageal manometry are not the preferred tests for diagnosing Schatzki’s rings. Treatment for Schatzki’s rings often involves bougie dilatation, and no further therapy may be necessary.

4. A client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) through a central line suddenly develops dyspnea, chest pain, and a drop in blood pressure. What should the nurse do first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Placing the client in Trendelenburg position should be the initial action as it can help manage a suspected air embolism, a potential complication of TPN administration. This position helps trap air in the apex of the atrium, reducing the risk of air reaching the pulmonary circulation and causing further harm. Once the client is in a safe position, further actions such as stopping the TPN infusion, notifying the healthcare provider, and administering oxygen can be taken as appropriate.

5. When assessing a client with a chest tube connected to suction, which observation indicates that the chest tube is functioning properly?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Steady bubbling in the suction control chamber is the correct observation that indicates the chest tube is functioning properly. This steady bubbling signifies that the suction is actively maintaining the desired pressure level within the system, ensuring proper drainage and lung re-expansion. Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber, intermittent bubbling in the suction control chamber, or no fluctuation in the water seal chamber are not indicative of optimal chest tube function and may require further assessment or intervention.

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