Nursing Elites

1. The client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen therapy. Which intervention should the nurse implement to ensure the client’s safety?

• A. Encourage the client to use oxygen continuously
• B. Monitor the client’s respiratory rate and effort
• C. Set the oxygen flow rate at 6 liters per minute
• D. Teach the client to avoid wearing wool blankets

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Monitoring the client’s respiratory rate and effort is essential to evaluate the effectiveness of oxygen therapy and prevent complications such as respiratory depression. This intervention helps the nurse promptly detect any deterioration in the client's respiratory status and take necessary actions to ensure the client's safety. Encouraging continuous oxygen use (Choice A) may lead to oxygen toxicity. Setting the oxygen flow rate at a specific level (Choice C) without individual assessment can be inappropriate and potentially harmful. Teaching the client to avoid wearing wool blankets (Choice D) is unrelated to the safe use of oxygen therapy.

2. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of acute pancreatitis. Which assessment finding is most indicative of this diagnosis?

• A. Epigastric pain that radiates to the back.
• B. Abdominal pain with guarding.
• C. Nausea and vomiting.
• D. Increased bowel sounds in all quadrants.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Epigastric pain that radiates to the back (A) is the hallmark assessment finding of acute pancreatitis. The pancreas lies retroperitoneally in the upper abdomen, so inflammation often causes severe epigastric pain that radiates through to the back. While abdominal pain with guarding (B), nausea and vomiting (C), and increased bowel sounds (D) can also be present in acute pancreatitis, they are less specific and may be seen in various other gastrointestinal conditions. Therefore, the most indicative finding for acute pancreatitis is epigastric pain that radiates to the back.

3. While suctioning a client’s nasopharynx, the nurse observes that the client’s oxygen saturation remains at 94%, which is the same reading obtained prior to starting the procedure. What action should the nurse take in response to this finding?

• A. Complete the intermittent suction of the nasopharynx.
• B. Reposition the pulse oximeter clip to obtain a new reading.
• C. Stop suctioning until the pulse oximeter reading is above 95%.
• D. Apply an oxygen mask over the client’s nose and mouth.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A stable oxygen saturation reading of 94% indicates that the nurse can continue with the suctioning procedure. It is within an acceptable range, and there is no immediate need to interrupt the procedure. Continuing with the suctioning will help maintain airway patency and promote adequate oxygenation. Choice B is incorrect because repositioning the pulse oximeter clip is unnecessary when the reading is stable. Choice C is incorrect as there is no evidence to support stopping the suctioning procedure solely based on the oxygen saturation reading of 94%. Choice D is not the best action at this point, as applying an oxygen mask is not indicated when the oxygen saturation is stable and within an acceptable range.

4. During a client assessment, the healthcare provider is evaluating cranial nerve function. Which assessment finding suggests that cranial nerve II is intact?

• A. The client can hear a whisper from 1 to 2 feet away.
• B. The client can identify an object by touch.
• C. The client can shrug the shoulders against resistance.
• D. The client can read a Snellen chart from 20 feet away.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The ability to read a Snellen chart from 20 feet away indicates intact cranial nerve II (optic nerve), responsible for vision. Hearing a whisper (A) is associated with cranial nerve VIII (vestibulocochlear nerve), identifying an object by touch (B) is related to cranial nerves V (trigeminal nerve) and VII (facial nerve), and shoulder shrugging against resistance (C) is a test for cranial nerve XI (accessory nerve). Thus, the correct answer is D as it specifically tests the function of cranial nerve II.

5. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of left-sided heart failure. Which assessment finding is most consistent with this diagnosis?

• A. Dependent edema.
• B. Ascites.
• C. Nocturia.
• D. Orthopnea.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Orthopnea (D) is most consistent with left-sided heart failure. It is characterized by difficulty breathing when lying flat and is relieved by sitting up or standing. Dependent edema (A), ascites (B), and nocturia (C) are more commonly associated with right-sided heart failure. Dependent edema refers to swelling due to fluid accumulation, ascites is the accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity, and nocturia is the excessive need to urinate during the night, all of which are more indicative of right-sided heart failure.

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