the nurse is caring for a client with a history of deep vein thrombosis dvt who is receiving warfarin coumadin which laboratory value should the nurse
Logo

Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

Adult Medical Surgical ATI

1. The nurse is caring for a client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) who is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) is monitored to ensure therapeutic levels of warfarin and prevent bleeding complications.

2. What is the primary action of digoxin when prescribed to a patient with heart failure?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Digoxin, when prescribed to a patient with heart failure, primarily acts by strengthening cardiac contractions. This leads to an improvement in cardiac output, making it an essential medication in managing heart failure. By enhancing the force of contractions, digoxin helps the heart pump more effectively and efficiently, leading to better circulation and symptom control in patients with compromised cardiac function.

3. A patient with tuberculosis is started on rifampin. What advice should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct advice for a patient starting rifampin is to expect orange-red discoloration of body fluids. Rifampin can cause harmless orange-red discoloration of body fluids, which may include urine, sweat, saliva, and tears. It is important for the patient to be aware of this side effect as it can stain clothing and contact lenses. Limiting the intake of green leafy vegetables is not necessary with rifampin. Avoiding exposure to sunlight is more commonly associated with other medications like tetracyclines, not rifampin. Taking rifampin with antacids is not recommended as antacids can reduce the absorption of rifampin, decreasing its effectiveness in treating tuberculosis.

4. A 30-year-old woman presents with fatigue, polyuria, and polydipsia. Laboratory tests reveal hyperglycemia and ketonuria. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The clinical presentation of a 30-year-old woman with fatigue, polyuria, polydipsia, hyperglycemia, and ketonuria is highly suggestive of type 1 diabetes mellitus. Type 1 diabetes mellitus is characterized by autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells, leading to insulin deficiency and subsequent hyperglycemia. The presence of ketonuria indicates the breakdown of fats for energy due to the lack of insulin. In contrast, type 2 diabetes mellitus typically presents with gradual onset and is often associated with insulin resistance rather than absolute insulin deficiency. Diabetes insipidus is characterized by polyuria and polydipsia but is not associated with hyperglycemia or ketonuria. Hyperthyroidism may present with symptoms like fatigue but does not typically cause hyperglycemia or ketonuria.

5. The patient described in the preceding question has a positive H. pylori antibody blood test. She is compliant with the medical regimen you prescribe. Although her symptoms initially respond, she returns to see you six months later with the same symptoms. Which of the following statements is correct?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Reinfection with H. pylori is rare, and the persistence of infection usually indicates poor compliance with the medical regimen or antibiotic resistance. The serum IgG may remain positive indefinitely and cannot be used to determine failure of eradication; however, a decrease in quantitative IgG levels has been utilized to indicate treatment success. If available, either the stool antigen or urease breath test is ideal to document treatment failure due to their high sensitivity, specificity, and ease of performance. The relationship between dyspepsia and H. pylori is controversial, but generally, dyspepsia does not typically improve with H. pylori eradication.

Similar Questions

A client with severe anemia is being treated with a blood transfusion. Which assessment finding indicates a transfusion reaction?
A client is being discharged with a new prescription for enoxaparin (Lovenox). Which instruction should the nurse include?
The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving chemotherapy. Which laboratory result indicates that the client is at risk for infection?
The client is receiving intravenous (IV) morphine for pain control. Which assessment finding requires the most immediate intervention?
A client with a new diagnosis of diabetes mellitus is learning to self-administer insulin. Which instruction should the nurse include?

Access More Features

ATI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All ATI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

ATI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All ATI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses