ATI LPN
ATI PN Adult Medical Surgical 2019
1. A client with newly diagnosed hypertension is prescribed enalapril (Vasotec). Which instruction should the nurse provide to the client?
- A. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
- B. Report any persistent cough to your healthcare provider.
- C. Take the medication with a full meal.
- D. Avoid grapefruit juice while taking this medication.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to provide the client taking enalapril (Vasotec) is to report any persistent cough to their healthcare provider. Enalapril can cause a side effect of a persistent cough, and it is essential for the healthcare provider to be notified if this occurs to evaluate the need for a medication adjustment or change. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing potassium-rich foods is not specifically related to enalapril use; there is no requirement to take enalapril with a full meal, and avoiding grapefruit juice is more relevant for medications metabolized by the CYP3A4 enzyme, not typically for enalapril.
2. What is the primary action of a short-acting beta2-agonist (SABA) prescribed to a patient with an acute asthma exacerbation?
- A. Reduce inflammation
- B. Relieve bronchospasm
- C. Thin respiratory secretions
- D. Suppress cough
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Relieve bronchospasm. The primary action of short-acting beta2-agonists (SABAs) is to relieve bronchospasm. These medications are bronchodilators that work by opening the airways, making breathing easier for patients experiencing asthma exacerbations. By relieving bronchospasm, SABAs help improve airflow and alleviate symptoms of asthma such as wheezing and shortness of breath. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because SABAs do not primarily reduce inflammation, thin respiratory secretions, or suppress cough. While these actions may be part of asthma management, the immediate goal of using a SABA during an acute exacerbation is to quickly relieve bronchospasm and improve airflow.
3. A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed a low-protein diet. Which laboratory result should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the diet?
- A. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
- B. Serum potassium
- C. Serum calcium
- D. Creatinine clearance
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) levels should be monitored to assess the effectiveness of a low-protein diet in clients with chronic kidney disease. BUN levels reflect the breakdown of protein in the body, and a low-protein diet aims to reduce BUN levels to lessen the workload on the kidneys. Therefore, monitoring BUN levels is crucial in managing kidney function and evaluating the impact of dietary modifications. Serum potassium, serum calcium, and creatinine clearance are important parameters to monitor in clients with chronic kidney disease, but they are not specifically indicative of the effectiveness of a low-protein diet. Serum potassium levels are crucial in assessing electrolyte balance, serum calcium levels are important for bone health and nerve function, and creatinine clearance reflects kidney function overall, not just the impact of a low-protein diet.
4. A 28-year-old woman presents with abdominal pain, bloating, and diarrhea. She notes that her symptoms improve with fasting. She has a history of iron deficiency anemia. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Irritable bowel syndrome
- B. Celiac disease
- C. Lactose intolerance
- D. Crohn's disease
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The symptoms of abdominal pain, bloating, diarrhea improving with fasting, and a history of iron deficiency anemia are characteristic of celiac disease. Celiac disease is an autoimmune disorder triggered by gluten consumption, leading to damage in the small intestine. The improvement with fasting may be due to the temporary avoidance of gluten-containing foods. Irritable bowel syndrome, lactose intolerance, and Crohn's disease do not typically present with improvement of symptoms with fasting or have a clear association with iron deficiency anemia.
5. A patient with hyperlipidemia is prescribed atorvastatin. What lab test should be monitored periodically to assess for adverse effects?
- A. Liver function tests
- B. Complete blood count
- C. Blood glucose levels
- D. Serum potassium
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Liver function tests. Patients on atorvastatin should have their liver function tests monitored periodically to detect any potential liver damage. Atorvastatin, a statin medication used to lower cholesterol levels, can rarely cause liver enzyme abnormalities, so regular monitoring is essential to identify any adverse effects early on. Monitoring the complete blood count (choice B), blood glucose levels (choice C), or serum potassium (choice D) is not typically required specifically for atorvastatin therapy. While these tests may be important for other conditions or medications, liver function tests are the most relevant for monitoring the adverse effects of atorvastatin.
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