Nursing Elites

1. A client is being treated with an antidepressant for major depressive disorder. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I know it may take several weeks before I start feeling better.
• B. I should avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication.
• C. I will stop taking the medication as soon as I feel better.
• D. I should take the medication at the same time every day.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Choice C indicates a need for further teaching because stopping antidepressants abruptly can lead to withdrawal symptoms. It is essential for the client to follow the healthcare provider's instructions and complete the full course of medication even if they start feeling better to prevent potential relapse or withdrawal effects.

2. An otherwise healthy 45-year-old man presents with severe hematochezia and moderate abdominal cramping since this morning. A barium enema one year ago was normal. On examination, his blood pressure is 120/78 and pulse is 100 while lying; when standing, the blood pressure is 110/76 and pulse is 136. His hematocrit is 34. What is the most likely cause of bleeding?

• A. Diverticular bleed
• B. Duodenal ulcer
• C. Inflammatory bowel disease
• D. Vascular ectasia (watermelon stomach)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The patient's presentation with hematochezia, moderate abdominal cramping, and hemodynamic changes (increased pulse on standing) suggests an upper gastrointestinal bleed. The drop in blood pressure and rise in pulse rate when standing indicate orthostatic hypotension, which is a sign of significant blood loss. The absence of melena does not rule out an upper GI bleed. Ulcers in the duodenal bulb can erode into the gastroduodenal artery, leading to brisk blood loss. A normal barium enema one year ago makes diverticular bleeding less likely. Inflammatory bowel disease usually does not cause severe acute GI bleeding unless there is ulceration into a vessel. Vascular ectasia, like watermelon stomach, typically presents with chronic blood loss and iron deficiency anemia, more common in older women. The absence of vomiting and the presence of hematochezia make Mallory-Weiss tear less likely in this case.

3. A 48-year-old woman presents with fatigue, pruritus, and jaundice. She has a history of ulcerative colitis. Laboratory tests reveal elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase. What is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Hepatitis B
• B. Primary biliary cirrhosis
• C. Primary sclerosing cholangitis
• D. Autoimmune hepatitis

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The combination of symptoms (fatigue, pruritus, jaundice) along with a history of ulcerative colitis and elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase levels suggests primary sclerosing cholangitis. Primary sclerosing cholangitis is commonly associated with inflammatory bowel disease, such as ulcerative colitis. It is characterized by inflammation and fibrosis of the bile ducts, leading to cholestasis and elevated alkaline phosphatase and bilirubin levels.

4. What nursing intervention can help alleviate pruritus in a client with cirrhosis?

• A. Administering antihistamines
• B. Providing a high-protein diet
• C. Applying emollients to the skin
• D. Encouraging frequent baths with hot water

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Applying emollients to the skin can help alleviate pruritus in clients with cirrhosis. Emollients help soothe and moisturize the skin, reducing the discomfort associated with itching.

5. A client from a nursing home is admitted with urinary sepsis and has a single-lumen, peripherally-inserted central catheter (PICC). Four medications are prescribed for 9:00 a.m. and the nurse is running behind schedule. Which medication should the nurse administer first?

• A. Piperacillin/tazobactam (Zosyn) in 100 ml D5W, IV over 30 minutes q8 hours.
• B. Vancomycin (Vancocin) 1 gm in 250 ml D5W, IV over 90 minutes q12 hours.
• C. Pantoprazole (Protonix) 40 mg PO daily.
• D. Enoxaparin (Lovenox) 40 mg subq q24 hours.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a patient with urinary sepsis, administering Piperacillin/tazobactam first is crucial as it is an antibiotic that directly targets the infection. Addressing the infection promptly is essential to prevent its progression and complications. Vancomycin, Pantoprazole, and Enoxaparin are important medications for the patient's overall treatment plan, but in this scenario, the antibiotic should take precedence due to the urgency of managing the sepsis.

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