Nursing Elites

1. A client is being treated with an antidepressant for major depressive disorder. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I know it may take several weeks before I start feeling better.
• B. I should avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication.
• C. I will stop taking the medication as soon as I feel better.
• D. I should take the medication at the same time every day.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Choice C indicates a need for further teaching because stopping antidepressants abruptly can lead to withdrawal symptoms. It is essential for the client to follow the healthcare provider's instructions and complete the full course of medication even if they start feeling better to prevent potential relapse or withdrawal effects.

2. A 36-year-old woman complains of reflux symptoms and intermittent diarrhea. The diagnosis of gastrinoma is suspected so a fasting serum gastrin is obtained and found to be 280 pg/mL (normal <115 pg/mL). An abdominal CT is negative. What would you do now?

• A. Refer her for an exploratory laparotomy
• B. Measure serum gastrin in response to secretin infusion
• C. Treat her for H. pylori
• D. Obtain a dedicated small bowel series

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The next step after finding an elevated fasting serum gastrin level is to perform a secretin stimulation test. This test helps differentiate between gastrinoma and other causes of elevated gastrin levels, such as proton-pump inhibitor therapy or H2 antagonists. In gastrinoma, the serum gastrin level should further increase after secretin infusion, while in other conditions, the levels would not significantly rise. Exploratory laparotomy would be premature without confirming the diagnosis. Treating for H. pylori is not indicated as the diagnosis of gastrinoma is under consideration and not Helicobacter pylori infection. A dedicated small bowel series is not the next appropriate step in this scenario.

3. An 82-year-old woman with no past medical history presents to your clinic complaining of arthritic symptoms. She is not taking any medications but needs something for her arthritis. You want to start her on a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) but are concerned about her age and the risk of peptic ulcers. As she has to pay for her medications out-of-pocket and requests the most cost-effective option, what is the most appropriate treatment plan?

• A. Prescribe an inexpensive NSAID alone
• B. Prescribe an inexpensive NSAID and misoprostol
• C. Prescribe celecoxib
• D. Prescribe an inexpensive NSAID and sucralfate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the most appropriate treatment plan would be to prescribe an inexpensive NSAID alone. While the elderly woman is at a higher risk of developing NSAID-related toxicity, prophylaxis with misoprostol or sucralfate is not recommended in the absence of a history of peptic ulcer disease or abdominal symptoms. Celecoxib, a selective COX-2 inhibitor, may be a more expensive option than traditional NSAIDs. Considering the patient's preference for the most inexpensive option and the lack of specific risk factors, starting with a standalone NSAID is the most suitable approach.

4. The healthcare provider prescribes 15 mg/kg of Streptomycin for an infant weighing 4 pounds. The drug is diluted in 25 ml of D5W to run over 8 hours. How much Streptomycin will the infant receive?

• A. 9 mg
• B. 18 mg
• C. 27 mg
• D. 36 mg

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the dosage, first, convert the weight from pounds to kg (4 lbs / 2.2 ≈ 1.82 kg). Then, multiply by the prescribed mg/kg (15 mg/kg * 1.82 kg ≈ 27.3 mg). However, since the question asks for the closest correct option, the infant will receive approximately 9 mg.

5. A client with acute pancreatitis is admitted to the hospital. What is the priority nursing intervention for this client?

• A. Administering oral pancreatic enzymes
• B. Encouraging a high-protein diet
• C. Maintaining NPO status and administering IV fluids
• D. Providing a low-fat diet

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The priority nursing intervention for a client with acute pancreatitis is to maintain NPO (nothing by mouth) status and administer IV fluids. This approach helps rest the pancreas, decrease pancreatic stimulation, and prevent further exacerbation of the condition. By withholding oral intake and providing IV fluids, the pancreas is given the opportunity to recover and inflammation can be reduced. This intervention is crucial in the acute phase of pancreatitis to support the healing process and prevent complications.

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