Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a 14-year-old adolescent who was admitted to the hospital after a suicide attempt. The adolescent’s mood appears stable, and the healthcare provider has recommended discharge. What is the nurse’s priority action?

• A. Ensure that a safety plan is in place before discharge
• B. Provide education about medication adherence
• C. Encourage the adolescent to participate in group therapy
• D. Schedule a follow-up appointment with a mental health professional

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority action for the nurse is to ensure that a safety plan is in place before discharge. A safety plan is essential to assist the adolescent in managing future crises and decreasing the likelihood of another suicide attempt. It provides guidance on coping strategies and resources to help the adolescent stay safe in times of distress.

2. What information should the nurse provide to parents of a 3-year-old boy with Duchenne muscular dystrophy who inquire about the disease and future children?

• A. This is an inherited X-linked recessive disorder, which primarily affects male children in the family
• B. The striated muscle groups of males can be impacted by a lack of the protein dystrophin in their mothers
• C. The male infant had a viral infection that went unnoticed and untreated so muscle damage was incurred
• D. Birth trauma with a breech vaginal birth causes damage to the spinal cord, thus weakening the muscles

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Duchenne muscular dystrophy is an X-linked recessive disorder caused by mutations in the DMD gene on the X chromosome. This disorder primarily affects males because they have one X chromosome, inherited from their mothers, who may be carriers of the mutated gene. Females have two X chromosomes, providing a protective effect as the normal gene on one X chromosome can compensate for the mutated gene on the other. Therefore, the nurse should explain to the parents that Duchenne muscular dystrophy is an inherited X-linked recessive disorder, which is why their son has the disease and why there is a risk of passing it on to future sons. Choice B is incorrect as it inaccurately implies that the lack of dystrophin in mothers impacts their sons' muscle groups. Choice C is incorrect as it suggests a viral infection caused the muscle damage, which is not the case with Duchenne muscular dystrophy. Choice D is incorrect as it attributes the muscle weakness to birth trauma instead of the genetic nature of the disorder.

3. An 8-year-old male client with nephrotic syndrome is receiving salt-poor human albumin IV. Which findings indicate to the nurse that the child is manifesting a therapeutic response?

• A. Decreased urinary output
• B. Decreased periorbital edema
• C. Increased periods of rest
• D. Weight gain of 0.5 kg/day

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In nephrotic syndrome treatment, decreased periorbital edema is a positive therapeutic response as it indicates a reduction in fluid retention. Periorbital edema is a common symptom of nephrotic syndrome due to fluid accumulation, so a decrease in this swelling signifies an improvement in the condition.

4. During a well-baby check of a 7-month-old infant, the practical nurse notes an absence of babbling. Which focused assessment should the PN implement?

• A. Visual function.
• B. Auditory function.
• C. Cognitive function.
• D. Social development.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The absence of babbling in a 7-month-old infant is a concerning auditory development milestone. Babbling is an early stage of language development that involves making various sounds. A lack of babbling could indicate a hearing impairment or other auditory issues. Therefore, the practical nurse should focus on assessing the infant's auditory function to determine if further evaluation or intervention is necessary. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the absence of babbling specifically points towards a potential issue related to auditory function rather than visual, cognitive, or social development.

5. The nurse is assessing a 3-month-old infant who was brought to the clinic by the parents due to concerns about the infant’s feeding. The parents report that the infant has been vomiting after every feeding and has not gained any weight. What should the nurse assess first?

• A. Evaluate the infant’s feeding technique
• B. Check the infant’s hydration status
• C. Measure the infant’s abdominal circumference
• D. Review the infant’s growth chart

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Assessing hydration status is crucial in an infant who is vomiting frequently, as dehydration can quickly become a serious issue. In this scenario, the infant's inability to retain feeds and lack of weight gain may indicate a potential risk of dehydration, making it essential to prioritize checking the infant's hydration status to prevent complications. Evaluating the feeding technique (Choice A) could be important but is secondary to addressing potential dehydration. Measuring the abdominal circumference (Choice C) and reviewing the growth chart (Choice D) are not the priority in this situation where dehydration is a primary concern.

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