HESI RN
HESI Practice Test Pediatrics
1. The nurse is caring for a 14-year-old adolescent who was admitted to the hospital after a suicide attempt. The adolescent’s mood appears stable, and the healthcare provider has recommended discharge. What is the nurse’s priority action?
- A. Ensure that a safety plan is in place before discharge
- B. Provide education about medication adherence
- C. Encourage the adolescent to participate in group therapy
- D. Schedule a follow-up appointment with a mental health professional
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The priority action for the nurse is to ensure that a safety plan is in place before discharge. A safety plan is essential to assist the adolescent in managing future crises and decreasing the likelihood of another suicide attempt. It provides guidance on coping strategies and resources to help the adolescent stay safe in times of distress.
2. A 2-year-old is admitted to the hospital with possible encephalitis, and a lumbar puncture is scheduled. Which information should the nurse provide this child concerning the procedure?
- A. Describe the side-lying, knees to chest position that must be assumed during the procedure.
- B. Tell the child to expect loud clicking noises during the procedure that may be slightly annoying.
- C. Reassure the child that there will be no restrictions on activity after the procedure is completed.
- D. Explain that fluids cannot be taken for 8 hours before the procedure and for 4 hours after the procedure.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Describing the side-lying, knees to chest position that must be assumed during the lumbar puncture procedure is essential as it helps the child understand what to expect, promotes cooperation, and reduces anxiety. This position is necessary for the procedure to be performed safely and effectively. Choice B is incorrect because mentioning loud clicking noises may increase the child's anxiety. Choice C is incorrect because there may be restrictions on activity after the procedure, depending on individual cases. Choice D is also incorrect as it provides information about fluid intake restrictions that are not directly related to the procedure itself.
3. A child who weighs 25 kg is receiving IV ampicillin at a dose of 300 mg/kg/24 hours in equally divided doses every 4 hours. How many milligrams should the nurse administer to the child for each dose?
- A. 1875 mg
- B. 625 mg
- C. 2000 mg
- D. 1500 mg
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the correct dose for each administration, you first need to find the total daily dose: 300 mg/kg * 25 kg = 7500 mg/day. Since this total dose is divided into equally divided doses every 4 hours, there are 6 doses in 24 hours. Therefore, 7500 mg ÷ 6 doses = 1250 mg per dose. The nurse should administer 1250 mg every 4 hours, resulting in a total of 1875 mg for each dose in a 24-hour period. Choice A, 1875 mg, is the correct answer. Choice B, 625 mg, is incorrect as it does not consider the total daily dose and the frequency of administration. Choice C, 2000 mg, is incorrect as it is not the calculated dosage based on the given parameters. Choice D, 1500 mg, is also incorrect as it does not reflect the correct dosage calculation for each dose.
4. When assessing a 10-year-old newly diagnosed with osteomyelitis, which information is most important for the nurse to obtain?
- A. Recent history of infection recurrences.
- B. Cultural heritage and beliefs.
- C. Family history of bone disorders.
- D. Increased fluid intake occurrences.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a 10-year-old with newly diagnosed osteomyelitis, the most important information for the nurse to obtain is the recent history of infection recurrences. This is crucial because osteomyelitis is an infection of the bone, and assessing for any recent recurrence of infections can help in determining the possible source of the osteomyelitis and guide the treatment plan accordingly. Choices B, C, and D are less relevant in the immediate assessment of a newly diagnosed case of osteomyelitis as they do not directly impact the current infection or treatment plan.
5. In a 6-year-old child with asthma experiencing difficulty breathing and using accessory muscles to breathe with a peak flow reading in the red zone, what should the nurse do first?
- A. Administer a nebulized bronchodilator
- B. Obtain an arterial blood gas
- C. Start the child on oxygen therapy
- D. Contact the healthcare provider
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for a 6-year-old child with asthma who is experiencing difficulty breathing, using accessory muscles to breathe, and has a peak flow reading in the red zone is to administer a nebulized bronchodilator first. Nebulized bronchodilators work rapidly to open up the airways, providing immediate relief and improving breathing. This intervention is crucial in addressing the acute respiratory distress the child is facing. Obtaining an arterial blood gas, starting oxygen therapy, or contacting the healthcare provider can be considered after the initial administration of the bronchodilator, as they are not the primary interventions needed to manage the child's acute respiratory distress.
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