Nursing Elites

1. During the assessment, a client receiving a continuous infusion of heparin for deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is found to have a nosebleed. Which finding requires immediate action?

• A. The client's activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is 70 seconds.
• B. The client has developed a nosebleed.
• C. The client's blood pressure is 150/90 mm Hg.
• D. The client reports feeling lightheaded.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A nosebleed (B) in a client receiving heparin is a sign of heparin toxicity and requires immediate action. It indicates that the client is at risk of excessive bleeding. While a prolonged aPTT of 70 seconds (A) is worth monitoring, active bleeding takes precedence. Elevated blood pressure (C) and lightheadedness (D) are potential side effects of heparin but are not as urgently concerning as active bleeding.

2. The healthcare provider who is preparing to give an adolescent client a prescribed antipsychotic medication notes that parental consent has not been obtained. Which action should the provider take?

• A. Review the chart for a signed consent for medication administration.
• B. Obtain parental consent before giving the medication.
• C. Do not give the medication and document the reason.
• D. Complete an incident report and notify the adolescent.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action is for the provider not to administer the medication and to document the reason. In the case of a minor, parental consent is required for medical treatment, including medication administration. It is important to follow legal and ethical guidelines to ensure the adolescent's well-being and rights are protected. Choice A is incorrect because simply reviewing the chart does not address the lack of parental consent. Choice B is incorrect as obtaining parental consent should be done before medication administration. Choice D is incorrect as notifying the adolescent is not the appropriate action in this situation, as parental consent is legally required for a minor's medical treatment.

3. A client with a diagnosis of anemia is receiving epoetin alfa (Epogen). Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of this medication?

• A. White blood cell count.
• B. Hemoglobin and hematocrit.
• C. Platelet count.
• D. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To evaluate the effectiveness of epoetin alfa (Epogen) in treating anemia, the nurse should monitor hemoglobin and hematocrit levels. These values indicate the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood, which directly relates to the treatment of anemia. White blood cell count (A), platelet count (C), and blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine (D) are not specific indicators of the effectiveness of epoetin alfa in treating anemia.

4. An older adult male client is admitted to the medical unit following a fall at home. When undressing him, the nurse notes that he is wearing an adult diaper, and skin breakdown is obvious over his sacral area. What action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Establish a toileting schedule to decrease episodes of incontinence
• B. Complete a functional assessment of the client’s self-care abilities
• C. Apply a barrier ointment to intact areas that may be exposed to moisture
• D. Determine the size and depth of skin breakdown over the sacral area

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The initial step the nurse should take when faced with skin breakdown over the sacral area of the client is to determine the size and depth of the affected area. Assessing and documenting these aspects are crucial before initiating any treatment. This evaluation will guide the nurse in developing an appropriate care plan to address the skin breakdown effectively. Options A, B, and C are not the first steps to take in this situation. While establishing a toileting schedule and completing a functional assessment are important, assessing the size and depth of the skin breakdown is the priority to initiate proper treatment. Applying a barrier ointment without assessing the extent of the breakdown may not address the underlying issue effectively.

5. The healthcare provider selects the best site for insertion of an IV catheter in the client's right arm. Which documentation should the healthcare provider use to identify placement of the IV access?

• A. Left brachial vein
• B. Right cephalic vein
• C. Dorsal side of the right wrist
• D. Right upper extremity

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Right cephalic vein. The cephalic vein is a large, superficial vein located on the radial side of the forearm, making it the preferred site for IV access. It is often the best choice for insertion of an IV catheter due to its accessibility and low risk of complications, such as infiltration. Documenting the use of the right cephalic vein for IV access is crucial for accurate and safe patient care. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the left brachial vein, the dorsal side of the right wrist, and the right upper extremity are not typically preferred sites for IV catheter insertion and may not provide optimal access or outcomes.

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