Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider formulates a nursing diagnosis of 'High risk for ineffective airway clearance' for a client with myasthenia gravis. What is the most likely cause for this nursing diagnosis?

• A. Pain during coughing.
• B. Diminished cough effort.
• C. Thick, dry secretions.
• D. Excessive inflammation.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clients with myasthenia gravis commonly experience muscle weakness, including in the muscles used for coughing. This diminished cough effort can lead to ineffective airway clearance, increasing the risk of respiratory complications. Therefore, the most likely cause for the nursing diagnosis 'High risk for ineffective airway clearance' in a client with myasthenia gravis is the diminished cough effort due to muscle weakness.

2. A patient with hyperlipidemia is prescribed atorvastatin. What lab test should be monitored periodically to assess for adverse effects?

• A. Liver function tests
• B. Complete blood count
• C. Blood glucose levels
• D. Serum potassium

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Liver function tests. Patients on atorvastatin should have their liver function tests monitored periodically to detect any potential liver damage. Atorvastatin, a statin medication used to lower cholesterol levels, can rarely cause liver enzyme abnormalities, so regular monitoring is essential to identify any adverse effects early on. Monitoring the complete blood count (choice B), blood glucose levels (choice C), or serum potassium (choice D) is not typically required specifically for atorvastatin therapy. While these tests may be important for other conditions or medications, liver function tests are the most relevant for monitoring the adverse effects of atorvastatin.

3. A 34-year-old woman presents with intermittent abdominal pain, bloating, and diarrhea. She notes that her symptoms improve with fasting. She has a history of iron deficiency anemia. What is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Irritable bowel syndrome
• B. Celiac disease
• C. Lactose intolerance
• D. Crohn's disease

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The patient's symptoms of intermittent abdominal pain, bloating, and diarrhea that improve with fasting, along with a history of iron deficiency anemia, are highly suggestive of celiac disease. In celiac disease, gluten ingestion leads to mucosal damage in the small intestine, causing malabsorption of nutrients like iron, leading to anemia. The improvement of symptoms with fasting can be explained by the temporary avoidance of gluten-containing foods. Irritable bowel syndrome typically does not improve with fasting. Lactose intolerance usually presents with symptoms after dairy consumption, not with fasting. Crohn's disease typically presents with more chronic symptoms and is not commonly associated with improvement on fasting.

4. A client returns to the unit after a neck dissection. The surgeon placed a Jackson-Pratt drain in the wound. When assessing the wound drainage over the first 24 postoperative hours, what finding would prompt the nurse to notify the health care provider immediately?

• A. Presence of small blood clots in the drainage
• B. 60 mL of milky or cloudy drainage
• C. Spots of drainage on the dressings surrounding the drain
• D. 120 mL of serosanguinous drainage

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Milky or cloudy drainage can indicate infection or lymphatic leakage, which requires immediate attention. This finding may suggest a serious complication post neck dissection, warranting prompt notification of the healthcare provider for further evaluation and intervention.

5. A client from a nursing home is admitted with urinary sepsis and has a single-lumen, peripherally-inserted central catheter (PICC). Four medications are prescribed for 9:00 a.m. and the nurse is running behind schedule. Which medication should the nurse administer first?

• A. Piperacillin/tazobactam (Zosyn) in 100 ml D5W, IV over 30 minutes q8 hours.
• B. Vancomycin (Vancocin) 1 gm in 250 ml D5W, IV over 90 minutes q12 hours.
• C. Pantoprazole (Protonix) 40 mg PO daily.
• D. Enoxaparin (Lovenox) 40 mg subq q24 hours.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a patient with urinary sepsis, administering Piperacillin/tazobactam first is crucial as it is an antibiotic that directly targets the infection. Addressing the infection promptly is essential to prevent its progression and complications. Vancomycin, Pantoprazole, and Enoxaparin are important medications for the patient's overall treatment plan, but in this scenario, the antibiotic should take precedence due to the urgency of managing the sepsis.

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