Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider formulates a nursing diagnosis of 'High risk for ineffective airway clearance' for a client with myasthenia gravis. What is the most likely cause for this nursing diagnosis?

• A. Pain during coughing.
• B. Diminished cough effort.
• C. Thick, dry secretions.
• D. Excessive inflammation.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clients with myasthenia gravis commonly experience muscle weakness, including in the muscles used for coughing. This diminished cough effort can lead to ineffective airway clearance, increasing the risk of respiratory complications. Therefore, the most likely cause for the nursing diagnosis 'High risk for ineffective airway clearance' in a client with myasthenia gravis is the diminished cough effort due to muscle weakness.

2. Which of the following statements is true about ischemic colitis?

• A. Typically requires colonic resection
• B. Affects the watershed areas of the colon, namely, the splenic flexure, right colon, and rectum
• C. Is only seen in the elderly
• D. Requires colonoscopic intervention

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Ischemic colitis most often results from low-flow states associated with hypotension or poor perfusion. As a result, the vascular watershed areas of the colon, including the splenic flexure, right colon, and rectum, are at highest risk of ischemic injury. Therefore, option B is correct as it accurately identifies the areas commonly affected by ischemic colitis.

3. A 28-year-old woman at 34 weeks of gestation presents with elevated liver enzymes and pruritus. Labs reveal total bilirubin to be 4.2 mg/dL, AST 480 U/L, ALT 640 U/L, and alkaline phosphatase 232 U/L. Viral hepatitis serologies and ANA are negative. On physical examination, she is jaundiced, but has a normal blood pressure, no edema, and a soft abdomen. The fetus is in no distress. Which of the following is true?

• A. The baby should be delivered immediately
• B. Symptoms will resolve promptly after delivery
• C. There is little risk of recurrence with subsequent pregnancies
• D. The mother should be screened for long-chain 3-hydroxyacyl-CoA dehydrogenase (LCHAD) deficiency

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The patient's presentation is consistent with intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy (ICP), a condition characterized by elevated liver enzymes, pruritus, and jaundice in the absence of other liver disease causes. ICP typically resolves promptly after delivery. Immediate delivery is indicated only for fetal distress, not maternal symptoms. ICP does have a significant risk of recurrence in subsequent pregnancies. Treatment options for ICP include cholestyramine and ursodeoxycholic acid. Screening for long-chain 3-hydroxyacyl-CoA dehydrogenase (LCHAD) deficiency is not indicated in this context as it is associated with acute fatty liver of pregnancy and HELLP syndrome, not ICP.

4. A client with left-sided heart failure is experiencing dyspnea and orthopnea. Which position should the nurse place the client in to relieve these symptoms?

• A. High Fowler's position.
• B. Supine position.
• C. Trendelenburg position.
• D. Sims' position.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Placing the client in High Fowler's position is beneficial for individuals with left-sided heart failure experiencing dyspnea and orthopnea. This position helps to reduce venous return, decrease preload, and enhance respiratory function, thereby relieving the symptoms mentioned. Choice B, the supine position, is not recommended as it may exacerbate dyspnea and orthopnea by increasing preload. Choice C, the Trendelenburg position, is incorrect as it involves the feet being positioned higher than the head, which is not suitable for heart failure patients. Choice D, the Sims' position, is a lateral position used for rectal examination and is not indicated for relieving dyspnea and orthopnea in heart failure.

5. The healthcare professional is caring for a client with a chest tube following a thoracotomy. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber.
• B. Serosanguineous drainage in the collection chamber.
• C. Intermittent bubbling in the suction control chamber.
• D. Chest tube secured to the client's chest wall.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber indicates an air leak, which requires immediate intervention to prevent complications such as pneumothorax. An air leak can lead to ineffective lung expansion, respiratory distress, and compromised gas exchange. Therefore, prompt action is necessary to maintain the integrity of the closed drainage system and prevent further complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because serosanguineous drainage is an expected finding post-thoracotomy, intermittent bubbling in the suction control chamber is normal, and having the chest tube secured to the client's chest wall is essential for stability and proper functioning.

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