ATI LPN
Medical Surgical ATI Proctored Exam
1. A 55-year-old woman presents with fatigue, pruritus, and jaundice. Laboratory tests reveal elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase levels. Imaging shows dilated intrahepatic bile ducts and a normal common bile duct. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Primary biliary cirrhosis
- B. Primary sclerosing cholangitis
- C. Gallstones
- D. Pancreatic cancer
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The presentation of fatigue, pruritus, and jaundice in a 55-year-old woman, along with elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase levels, and imaging findings of dilated intrahepatic bile ducts and a normal common bile duct, are characteristic of primary biliary cirrhosis. Primary biliary cirrhosis is an autoimmune liver disease that typically affects middle-aged women, leading to progressive destruction of the intrahepatic bile ducts.
2. A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) presents with increasing shortness of breath. Which assessment finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?
- A. Barrel-shaped chest.
- B. Use of accessory muscles to breathe.
- C. Oxygen saturation of 88%.
- D. Respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: An oxygen saturation of 88% indicates hypoxemia, which is a critical finding in a client with COPD. Hypoxemia can lead to serious complications and may require immediate intervention, such as adjusting oxygen therapy to improve oxygenation levels and prevent further respiratory distress. Monitoring and maintaining adequate oxygen saturation is crucial in managing COPD exacerbations and preventing respiratory failure.
3. A patient with hypertension is prescribed lisinopril. What side effect should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypoglycemia
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Constipation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a patient is prescribed lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, the nurse should monitor for hyperkalemia. Lisinopril can cause hyperkalemia by decreasing aldosterone secretion, which leads to potassium retention in the body. Hyperkalemia is a potential side effect of ACE inhibitors and should be closely monitored, as it can have serious consequences such as affecting cardiac function.
4. After performing a paracentesis on a client with ascites, 3 liters of fluid are removed. Which assessment parameter is most critical for the nurse to monitor following the procedure?
- A. Pedal pulses.
- B. Breath sounds.
- C. Gag reflex.
- D. Vital signs.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Following a paracentesis where a significant amount of fluid is removed, it is crucial to monitor the client's vital signs. This helps in detecting any signs of hypovolemia, such as changes in blood pressure, heart rate, and respiratory rate, which could indicate complications post-procedure. Monitoring the vital signs allows for prompt intervention if there are any deviations from the baseline values.
5. A patient with epilepsy is prescribed phenytoin. What is the primary side effect the nurse should monitor for?
- A. Hypotension
- B. Gingival hyperplasia
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Hyperkalemia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Gingival hyperplasia, or overgrowth of the gums, is a common side effect of phenytoin. Patients should maintain good oral hygiene to minimize this effect.
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