ATI LPN
Medical Surgical ATI Proctored Exam
1. A 55-year-old woman presents with fatigue, pruritus, and jaundice. Laboratory tests reveal elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase levels. Imaging shows dilated intrahepatic bile ducts and a normal common bile duct. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Primary biliary cirrhosis
- B. Primary sclerosing cholangitis
- C. Gallstones
- D. Pancreatic cancer
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The presentation of fatigue, pruritus, and jaundice in a 55-year-old woman, along with elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase levels, and imaging findings of dilated intrahepatic bile ducts and a normal common bile duct, are characteristic of primary biliary cirrhosis. Primary biliary cirrhosis is an autoimmune liver disease that typically affects middle-aged women, leading to progressive destruction of the intrahepatic bile ducts.
2. A client with a history of myocardial infarction (MI) is prescribed atorvastatin (Lipitor). Which outcome indicates that the medication is effective?
- A. Increased blood pressure.
- B. Lowered cholesterol levels.
- C. Decreased heart rate.
- D. Improved liver function.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Lowered cholesterol levels. Atorvastatin is a medication commonly prescribed to lower cholesterol levels, which is crucial in reducing the risk of further cardiovascular events, including myocardial infarction (MI). Monitoring cholesterol levels is essential to assess the effectiveness of atorvastatin therapy and its role in preventing future cardiac complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because increased blood pressure, decreased heart rate, and improved liver function are not direct indicators of atorvastatin's effectiveness in a client with a history of MI.
3. The healthcare professional is caring for a client with heart failure who is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin). Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Heart rate of 58 beats per minute.
- B. Nausea and vomiting.
- C. Blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg.
- D. Shortness of breath.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Nausea and vomiting are common signs of digoxin toxicity, which can lead to serious complications like dysrhythmias. Prompt intervention is crucial to prevent further harm to the client. Choice A, a heart rate of 58 beats per minute, although slightly lower than normal, may be appropriate for a client on digoxin. Choice C, a blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg, is within normal limits and does not indicate an immediate need for intervention. Choice D, shortness of breath, is a common symptom in heart failure and requires monitoring but is not as indicative of digoxin toxicity as nausea and vomiting.
4. What physical assessment data should the nurse consider a normal finding for a primigravida client who is 12 hours postpartum?
- A. Soft, spongy fundus.
- B. Saturating two perineal pads per hour.
- C. Pulse rate of 56 BPM.
- D. Unilateral lower leg pain.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. A pulse rate of 56 BPM can be considered a normal finding for a primigravida client who is 12 hours postpartum. Postpartum bradycardia can occur due to increased stroke volume and decreased vascular resistance after delivery. It is important for the nurse to monitor the client's vital signs and recognize that a lower pulse rate can be expected in the immediate postpartum period. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because a soft, spongy fundus may indicate uterine atony, saturating two perineal pads per hour is excessive bleeding, and unilateral lower leg pain could suggest deep vein thrombosis, all of which would require further assessment and intervention.
5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer digoxin 0.25 mg PO daily. The amount available is digoxin 0.125 mg tablets. How many tablets should the healthcare professional administer? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)
- A. 1
- B. 2
- C. 3
- D. 4
Correct answer: B
Rationale: To achieve the prescribed dose of 0.25 mg, the healthcare professional should administer 2 tablets of 0.125 mg each, totaling 0.25 mg.
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