ATI LPN
Medical Surgical ATI Proctored Exam
1. A 55-year-old woman presents with fatigue, pruritus, and jaundice. Laboratory tests reveal elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase levels. Imaging shows dilated intrahepatic bile ducts and a normal common bile duct. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Primary biliary cirrhosis
- B. Primary sclerosing cholangitis
- C. Gallstones
- D. Pancreatic cancer
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The presentation of fatigue, pruritus, and jaundice in a 55-year-old woman, along with elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase levels, and imaging findings of dilated intrahepatic bile ducts and a normal common bile duct, are characteristic of primary biliary cirrhosis. Primary biliary cirrhosis is an autoimmune liver disease that typically affects middle-aged women, leading to progressive destruction of the intrahepatic bile ducts.
2. In evaluating a 10-year-old child with meningitis suspected of having diabetes insipidus, which finding is indicative of diabetes insipidus?
- A. Decreased urine specific gravity.
- B. Elevated urine glucose.
- C. Decreased serum potassium.
- D. Increased serum sodium.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Diabetes insipidus is characterized by the kidneys' inability to concentrate urine, leading to decreased urine specific gravity. This results in the excretion of large volumes of dilute urine, causing a decrease in urine specific gravity. Therefore, when evaluating a suspected case of diabetes insipidus, a finding of decreased urine specific gravity is indicative of this condition.
3. A client is admitted with suspected meningitis. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Headache.
- B. Fever.
- C. Nuchal rigidity.
- D. Seizures.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Seizures in a client with suspected meningitis indicate increased intracranial pressure or other complications requiring immediate intervention. Seizures can lead to further neurological damage and need prompt management to prevent adverse outcomes. Therefore, addressing seizures promptly is crucial in the care of a client with suspected meningitis.
4. What instructions should the nurse give to a patient with cervical cancer who is planned to receive external-beam radiation to prevent complications from the effects of the radiation?
- A. Test stools for the presence of blood.
- B. Maintain a low-residue, high-fiber diet.
- C. Clean the perianal area carefully after every bowel movement.
- D. Inspect the mouth and throat daily for signs of thrush.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a patient with cervical cancer is receiving external-beam radiation, the radiation to the abdomen can affect organs in its path, such as the bowel, leading to complications like frequent diarrhea. Cleaning the perianal area carefully after each bowel movement is crucial to decrease the risk of skin breakdown and infection. Testing stools for blood is not necessary since inflammation associated with radiation may lead to occult blood in stools. Maintaining a low-residue diet is actually recommended to prevent bowel irritation. Radiation to the abdomen does not cause stomatitis, so inspecting the mouth and throat for thrush is not directly related to the effects of external-beam radiation in this context.
5. In planning the turning schedule for a bedfast client, it is most important for the nurse to consider what assessment finding?
- A. 4+ pitting edema of both lower extremities.
- B. A Braden risk assessment scale rating score of ten.
- C. Warm, dry skin with a fever of 100° F.
- D. Hypoactive bowel sounds with infrequent bowel movements.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A low Braden score indicates a high risk for pressure ulcers, making regular turning crucial to prevent skin breakdown.
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