a 65 year old white female with a history of arthritis congestive heart failure and osteoporosis complains of odynophagia for two weeks a barium swall
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1. A 65-year-old white female with a history of arthritis, congestive heart failure, and osteoporosis complains of odynophagia for two weeks. A barium swallow shows a moderate-sized crater just above the gastroesophageal junction. What is the least likely contributor to this condition?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this case, the least likely contributor to the condition described is the calcium channel blocker. NSAIDs, alendronate, and iron sulfate have been associated with pill-induced esophagitis, which can present with symptoms like odynophagia and erosions or ulcers on imaging studies. Pill-induced esophagitis is often due to factors like inadequate water intake with the medication, being in a supine position, or underlying motility disorders. Discontinuation of the offending medication typically leads to rapid resolution of esophageal injury. Acid-suppressive therapy may be used to prevent reflux-related damage.

2. A client with a history of asthma is prescribed salmeterol (Serevent). Which instruction should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed salmeterol (Serevent) is to use it twice daily for long-term control. Salmeterol is a long-acting bronchodilator that is not intended for acute asthma attacks or as-needed use for wheezing. Choice A is incorrect because salmeterol is not used for acute asthma attacks. Choice B is incorrect as salmeterol is not meant to replace the albuterol inhaler but rather used for long-term control. Choice D is incorrect because salmeterol should not be used as needed; it is a maintenance medication for asthma.

3. The client was recently diagnosed with chronic gastritis. What health practice should the nurse address when teaching the client to limit exacerbations of the disease?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Avoiding aspirin is crucial in managing chronic gastritis as it can further irritate the stomach lining, leading to exacerbations of the condition. Aspirin is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that can increase stomach acid production, potentially worsening gastritis symptoms. Therefore, the nurse should educate the client on using alternative pain or fever relief methods that are less likely to aggravate gastritis, such as acetaminophen.

4. When planning care for a 16-year-old with appendicitis presenting with right lower quadrant pain, what should the nurse prioritize as a nursing diagnosis?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority nursing diagnosis for a client with appendicitis is the 'Risk for infection related to possible rupture of the appendix.' Appendicitis carries a risk of the appendix rupturing, which can lead to peritonitis, a life-threatening condition. Preventing infection through timely intervention and surgery is critical in the care of a client with appendicitis, making this nursing diagnosis the priority.

5. A patient with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is prescribed hydroxychloroquine. What is the most important instruction the nurse should give?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a patient prescribed hydroxychloroquine, especially in the context of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), is to report any vision changes immediately. Hydroxychloroquine can potentially cause retinal damage, so prompt reporting and ophthalmologic evaluation are essential in preventing irreversible eye complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not address the significant adverse effect of hydroxychloroquine on vision. Taking the medication with milk, avoiding high-fat foods, or increasing intake of green leafy vegetables are not relevant to the primary concern of monitoring for visual changes.

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