a client admitted with a diagnosis of sepsis has a central venous pressure cvp of 15 mm hg what should the nurse do first
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

Medical Surgical ATI Proctored Exam

1. A client admitted with a diagnosis of sepsis has a central venous pressure (CVP) of 15 mm Hg. What should the nurse do first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A CVP of 15 mm Hg is higher than normal, indicating possible fluid overload or heart failure, which needs immediate attention. Notifying the healthcare provider is crucial as they can evaluate the client's condition, order appropriate interventions, and prevent potential complications.

2. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which instruction should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client on warfarin therapy, especially with a history of DVT, is to use a soft-bristled toothbrush. This is crucial to prevent gum bleeding, which is a risk due to the anticoagulant effects of warfarin. Green leafy vegetables are rich in vitamin K, which can interfere with warfarin's effectiveness, so they should be consumed consistently to maintain a balance. Aspirin is not recommended for headaches in clients on warfarin due to the increased risk of bleeding. Limiting fluid intake is not a standard instruction for clients on warfarin therapy.

3. A client who has Type 1 diabetes and is at 10-weeks gestation comes to the prenatal clinic complaining of a headache, nausea, sweating, feeling shaky, and being tired all the time. What action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first is to check the client's blood glucose level. This is crucial to determine if the symptoms are a result of hypoglycemia or hyperglycemia, which requires immediate attention to maintain the client's health and the health of the developing fetus.

4. What assessments should the nurse prioritize for a client with portal hypertension admitted to the medical floor?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In portal hypertension, daily weights and measurement of abdominal girth are crucial assessments to monitor fluid retention and ascites. These assessments help in evaluating the effectiveness of treatment and identifying any worsening of the condition, guiding appropriate interventions. Monitoring blood pressure and assessing for symptoms like headaches and visual changes may be important but are not the priority in this case. Assessing for signs and symptoms of venous thromboembolism is relevant in some situations but not directly related to the primary concerns of portal hypertension.

5. A 45-year-old man with a history of chronic heartburn presents with progressive difficulty swallowing solids and liquids. He has lost 10 pounds in the past two months. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the patient's presentation of progressive dysphagia to both solids and liquids, along with significant weight loss, is concerning for esophageal cancer. The history of chronic heartburn further raises suspicion as chronic gastroesophageal reflux disease is a risk factor for the development of esophageal adenocarcinoma. Esophageal stricture could cause dysphagia but is less likely to be associated with significant weight loss. Achalasia typically presents with dysphagia to solids more than liquids and does not commonly cause weight loss. Peptic ulcer disease is less likely to lead to progressive dysphagia and significant weight loss compared to esophageal cancer.

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