Nursing Elites

1. The client is taking interferon alfa-2a (Roferon-A) and ribavirin (Virazole) combination therapy for hepatitis C and reports overwhelming feelings of depression. Which action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Recommend mental health counseling.
• B. Review the medication actions and interactions.
• C. Assess the client's daily activity level.
• D. Provide information about a support group.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority action for the nurse is to review the medication actions and interactions. Interferon alfa-2a and ribavirin combination therapy for hepatitis C can lead to neuropsychiatric side effects, including depression. By assessing the medication actions and interactions, the nurse can identify if the depression is a known side effect of the medications, and further intervention or adjustment of the treatment plan may be required to address the client's emotional well-being. Recommending mental health counseling (choice A) may be necessary but should come after ensuring that the depression is not solely caused by medication side effects. Assessing the client's daily activity level (choice C) and providing information about a support group (choice D) are important interventions but addressing the medication's potential contribution to the depression takes precedence.

2. The healthcare professional is collecting data on a client who was just admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of coronary artery disease (CAD). The client reveals having been under a great deal of stress recently. What should the healthcare professional do next?

• A. Ask whether the client wants to seek counseling or therapy.
• B. Explore with the client the sources of stress in their life.
• C. Reassure the client that stress is common in today's world.
• D. Ask the client to make a list of stressors for later evaluation.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: It is important for the healthcare professional to explore the sources of stress with the client to develop an effective stress management plan tailored to the individual's specific stressors. By understanding the sources of stress, healthcare professionals can identify triggers, implement appropriate interventions, and support the client's overall well-being. Option A is not the immediate next step as exploring the sources of stress should come before suggesting counseling or therapy. Option C is dismissive of the client's feelings and does not address the need for personalized stress management. Option D delays the process by asking the client to make a list without actively engaging in a discussion to identify stressors.

3. A healthcare professional is reviewing laboratory results for a client who has been taking carbamazepine. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?

• A. WBC count 3,000/mm3
• B. Platelet count 150,000/mm3
• C. Hemoglobin 14 g/dL
• D. Serum potassium 4.5 mEq/L

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A WBC count of 3,000/mm3 indicates leukopenia, a serious side effect of carbamazepine. Leukopenia can increase the risk of infections due to decreased white blood cell count, which is important to report to the provider for further evaluation and management. Platelet count within normal range (choice B), hemoglobin level within normal range (choice C), and serum potassium level within normal range (choice D) are not directly associated with carbamazepine use and do not require immediate reporting as they do not indicate a serious adverse effect.

4. A client with heart failure is prescribed an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. The nurse should reinforce which instruction?

• A. Take the medication at bedtime.
• B. Report a persistent dry cough.
• C. Increase potassium-rich foods in the diet.
• D. Avoid taking the medication with meals.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to report a persistent dry cough. ACE inhibitors can cause a common side effect of a persistent dry cough, which should be promptly reported to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and possible medication adjustment. Option A is incorrect because the timing of ACE inhibitor administration is usually not specified to be at bedtime. Option C is incorrect as increasing potassium-rich foods can lead to hyperkalemia when taking ACE inhibitors. Option D is incorrect because ACE inhibitors can be taken with or without food.

5. A client with heart failure is receiving digoxin. Which finding should indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing digoxin toxicity?

• A. Constipation
• B. Blurred vision
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Dry cough

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Bradycardia is a hallmark sign of digoxin toxicity. Digoxin, a medication used to treat heart conditions, can lead to toxicity manifesting as bradycardia. Bradycardia occurs due to the drug's effect on slowing down the heart rate excessively. Constipation (Choice A) is not typically associated with digoxin toxicity. Blurred vision (Choice B) is more commonly linked to visual disturbances caused by digoxin, but it is not a defining sign of toxicity. Dry cough (Choice D) is not a recognized symptom of digoxin toxicity. It is crucial for the nurse to recognize the early signs of digoxin toxicity to prevent serious complications and provide appropriate interventions promptly.

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