ATI LPN
LPN Pharmacology Practice Questions
1. The client is taking interferon alfa-2a (Roferon-A) and ribavirin (Virazole) combination therapy for hepatitis C and reports overwhelming feelings of depression. Which action should the nurse implement first?
- A. Recommend mental health counseling.
- B. Review the medication actions and interactions.
- C. Assess the client's daily activity level.
- D. Provide information about a support group.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The priority action for the nurse is to review the medication actions and interactions. Interferon alfa-2a and ribavirin combination therapy for hepatitis C can lead to neuropsychiatric side effects, including depression. By assessing the medication actions and interactions, the nurse can identify if the depression is a known side effect of the medications, and further intervention or adjustment of the treatment plan may be required to address the client's emotional well-being. Recommending mental health counseling (choice A) may be necessary but should come after ensuring that the depression is not solely caused by medication side effects. Assessing the client's daily activity level (choice C) and providing information about a support group (choice D) are important interventions but addressing the medication's potential contribution to the depression takes precedence.
2. A healthcare provider is reviewing the medication administration record of a client who has a latex allergy. Which of the following medications should the healthcare provider identify as a potential risk for an allergic reaction?
- A. Cefoxitin
- B. Amoxicillin
- C. Erythromycin
- D. Metronidazole
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Cefoxitin. Cefoxitin can contain latex in the stopper of the vial, which may pose a risk for allergic reaction in individuals with latex sensitivity. Amoxicillin, Erythromycin, and Metronidazole do not typically contain latex components in their formulations. Healthcare providers should be vigilant in identifying and avoiding medications with latex components to prevent adverse reactions in patients with known latex allergies.
3. The client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide (Lasix). Which electrolyte imbalance is the nurse most likely to monitor for?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypernatremia
- C. Hypokalemia
- D. Hyponatremia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, commonly causes potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. The nurse should closely monitor for decreased potassium levels in a client receiving furosemide to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias or muscle weakness. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is not typically associated with furosemide use. Hypernatremia (Choice B) refers to high sodium levels and is not the primary concern with furosemide. Hyponatremia (Choice D) is low sodium levels, which can occur but is less common than hypokalemia in clients taking furosemide.
4. The client with myocardial infarction should reduce intake of saturated fat and cholesterol. Which food items from the dietary menu would assist the nurse in helping the client comply with diet therapy?
- A. Cheeseburger, pan-fried potatoes, whole kernel corn, sherbet
- B. Pork chop, baked potato, cauliflower in cheese sauce, ice cream
- C. Baked haddock, steamed broccoli, herbed rice, sliced strawberries
- D. Spaghetti and sweet sausage in tomato sauce, vanilla pudding (with 4% milk)
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Option C, which includes baked haddock, steamed broccoli, herbed rice, and sliced strawberries, is the most appropriate choice for a client with myocardial infarction looking to reduce saturated fat and cholesterol intake. This meal is low in saturated fats and cholesterol, making it a heart-healthy option that aligns with the dietary recommendations for such clients. Choices A, B, and D contain foods high in saturated fats and cholesterol, which are not suitable for a client with myocardial infarction trying to adhere to a diet therapy aimed at reducing these components.
5. A client diagnosed with thrombophlebitis 1 day ago suddenly complains of chest pain and shortness of breath. The LPN/LVN understands that a life-threatening complication of this condition is which?
- A. Pneumonia
- B. Pulmonary edema
- C. Pulmonary embolism
- D. Myocardial infarction
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, Pulmonary embolism. Pulmonary embolism is a critical complication of thrombophlebitis where a blood clot dislodges and travels to the lungs, obstructing blood flow. This obstruction can lead to chest pain, shortness of breath, and potentially fatal consequences, making it a life-threatening emergency that requires prompt intervention. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because pneumonia, pulmonary edema, and myocardial infarction are not directly associated with thrombophlebitis and would not present with the sudden onset of chest pain and shortness of breath in this context.
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