Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare professional is assisting in the care of a client diagnosed with heart failure. The client is receiving furosemide (Lasix). Which laboratory value should the healthcare professional monitor most closely?

• A. Serum calcium
• B. Serum potassium
• C. Serum sodium
• D. Serum glucose

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to significant potassium loss, making it crucial to monitor the client's serum potassium levels. Hypokalemia (low potassium levels) can result from furosemide use, potentially leading to adverse effects such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Therefore, close monitoring of serum potassium levels is essential to prevent complications in clients receiving furosemide. Monitoring serum calcium, sodium, or glucose levels is not the priority when administering furosemide.

2. When educating a client about the use of risedronate to treat osteoporosis, which instruction should be included?

• A. Drink a full glass of water with each dose.
• B. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
• C. Remain upright for 30 minutes after taking the medication.
• D. Avoid lying down for at least 1 hour after taking the medication.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking risedronate to treat osteoporosis is to remain upright for 30 minutes after taking the medication. This is important to prevent esophageal irritation, as risedronate can cause irritation if it remains in contact with the esophagus. By staying upright, the medication is more likely to reach the stomach quickly and reduce the risk of irritation to the esophagus. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Drinking a full glass of water is recommended, not milk, to help with swallowing the medication. Risedronate should be taken on an empty stomach, not with meals, to ensure proper absorption. Additionally, avoiding lying down for at least 1 hour after taking the medication helps prevent esophageal irritation.

3. Prior to a dipyridamole thallium scan, what substance should the LPN/LVN ensure the client has not consumed?

• A. Caffeine
• B. Fatty meal
• C. Excess sugar
• D. Milk products

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Caffeine should be avoided before a dipyridamole thallium scan as it can interfere with the test results. Caffeine is a stimulant that can affect the heart rate and may lead to inaccurate findings during the scan. Fatty meals, excess sugar, and milk products do not specifically interfere with the dipyridamole thallium scan procedure. Therefore, it is essential for the LPN/LVN to check and ensure that the client has not consumed caffeine prior to the procedure to obtain accurate diagnostic results.

4. What preoperative instruction should the LPN/LVN reinforce to a client scheduled for a carotid endarterectomy?

• A. You will need to be NPO after midnight before the surgery.
• B. You should avoid deep breathing and coughing after the surgery.
• C. You will be able to eat and drink normally after the procedure.
• D. You can take all of your prescribed medications the morning of surgery.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct preoperative instruction that the LPN/LVN should reinforce to a client scheduled for a carotid endarterectomy is being NPO after midnight before the surgery. This instruction is essential to prevent aspiration and ensure a safe procedure. Avoiding oral intake helps reduce the risk of complications during anesthesia induction and the surgical process. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because avoiding deep breathing and coughing, resuming normal eating and drinking, and taking all prescribed medications the morning of surgery are not recommended preoperative instructions for a carotid endarterectomy.

5. The healthcare provider is evaluating the effects of care for a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which limb observations should the provider note as indicating the least success in meeting the outcome criteria for this problem?

• A. Pedal edema that is 3+
• B. Slight residual calf tenderness
• C. Skin warm, equal temperature in both legs
• D. Calf girth 1/8 inch larger than the unaffected limb

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Significant pedal edema, indicated by 3+, suggests ongoing or worsening venous insufficiency. This can be a sign that the care provided has not been effective in managing the deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and the associated complications. Monitoring and addressing pedal edema is crucial in the evaluation of DVT treatment outcomes and overall patient care. Choices B, C, and D are not indicative of the least success in meeting the outcome criteria for DVT. Slight residual calf tenderness, skin warmth, and a slightly larger calf girth do not necessarily point towards treatment failure or lack of improvement in DVT management.

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