Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is reviewing the medication administration record of a client who has a latex allergy. Which of the following medications should the healthcare provider identify as a potential risk for an allergic reaction?

• A. Cefoxitin
• B. Amoxicillin
• C. Erythromycin
• D. Metronidazole

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Cefoxitin. Cefoxitin can contain latex in the stopper of the vial, which may pose a risk for allergic reaction in individuals with latex sensitivity. Amoxicillin, Erythromycin, and Metronidazole do not typically contain latex components in their formulations. Healthcare providers should be vigilant in identifying and avoiding medications with latex components to prevent adverse reactions in patients with known latex allergies.

2. The healthcare provider assesses a client who has been prescribed furosemide (Lasix) for cardiac disease. Which electrocardiographic change would be a concern for a client taking a diuretic?

• A. Tall, spiked T waves
• B. A prolonged QT interval
• C. A widening QRS complex
• D. Presence of a U wave

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The presence of a U wave is often associated with hypokalemia, a possible side effect of diuretic therapy like furosemide. Hypokalemia can lead to U wave formation on an electrocardiogram, making the presence of U waves a concerning finding in clients taking diuretics. Tall, spiked T waves are typically seen in hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia. A prolonged QT interval is more commonly associated with conditions like Long QT syndrome or certain medications, not specifically with diuretics. A widening QRS complex is usually seen in conditions affecting the conduction system of the heart, such as bundle branch blocks, rather than being directly related to diuretic use.

3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Dry cough
• C. Hypokalemia
• D. Increased appetite

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hypokalemia. Hypokalemia is a common electrolyte imbalance associated with furosemide use due to its diuretic effect, which can lead to potassium loss. It is crucial to report hypokalemia promptly to the provider as it can result in serious complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Monitoring and managing potassium levels are essential in patients taking furosemide to prevent adverse effects related to electrolyte imbalances. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect findings to report in a client prescribed furosemide. Weight gain is not typically associated with furosemide use, a dry cough is more commonly linked to ACE inhibitors, and increased appetite is not a common adverse effect of furosemide.

4. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer a beta blocker to a client with hypertension. What parameter should be checked before administering the medication?

• A. Serum potassium level
• B. Apical pulse
• C. Oxygen saturation
• D. Pupil reaction to light

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Before administering a beta blocker, it is crucial to check the apical pulse. Beta blockers have the potential to slow down the heart rate, making it essential to assess the pulse rate to ensure it is within the safe range before giving the medication. Checking the serum potassium level (choice A) is important when administering certain medications, but it is not specifically required before giving a beta blocker. Oxygen saturation (choice C) and pupil reaction to light (choice D) are not directly related to monitoring parameters for beta blocker administration.

5. What preoperative instruction should the LPN/LVN reinforce to a client scheduled for a carotid endarterectomy?

• A. You will need to be NPO after midnight before the surgery.
• B. You should avoid deep breathing and coughing after the surgery.
• C. You will be able to eat and drink normally after the procedure.
• D. You can take all of your prescribed medications the morning of surgery.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct preoperative instruction that the LPN/LVN should reinforce to a client scheduled for a carotid endarterectomy is being NPO after midnight before the surgery. This instruction is essential to prevent aspiration and ensure a safe procedure. Avoiding oral intake helps reduce the risk of complications during anesthesia induction and the surgical process. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because avoiding deep breathing and coughing, resuming normal eating and drinking, and taking all prescribed medications the morning of surgery are not recommended preoperative instructions for a carotid endarterectomy.

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