ATI LPN
LPN Pharmacology Practice Test
1. A healthcare provider is reviewing the medication administration record of a client who has a latex allergy. Which of the following medications should the healthcare provider identify as a potential risk for an allergic reaction?
- A. Cefoxitin
- B. Amoxicillin
- C. Erythromycin
- D. Metronidazole
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Cefoxitin. Cefoxitin can contain latex in the stopper of the vial, which may pose a risk for allergic reaction in individuals with latex sensitivity. Amoxicillin, Erythromycin, and Metronidazole do not typically contain latex components in their formulations. Healthcare providers should be vigilant in identifying and avoiding medications with latex components to prevent adverse reactions in patients with known latex allergies.
2. A client's serum calcium level is 7.9 mg/dL. The nurse is immediately concerned, knowing that this level could lead to which complication?
- A. Stroke
- B. Cardiac arrest
- C. High blood pressure
- D. Urinary stone formation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A serum calcium level below normal (hypocalcemia) can lead to cardiac arrhythmias and potentially cardiac arrest. Calcium plays a crucial role in cardiac muscle contractility, and low levels can disrupt normal heart function, potentially leading to fatal arrhythmias and cardiac arrest. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as hypocalcemia is not directly associated with stroke, high blood pressure, or urinary stone formation. The immediate concern with low serum calcium levels is the risk of cardiac complications.
3. A client has a new prescription for isoniazid. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
- B. Avoid drinking alcohol.
- C. Take the medication with an antacid.
- D. Increase your intake of leafy green vegetables.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to avoid drinking alcohol. Isoniazid can cause liver damage, and alcohol consumption can increase this risk. Therefore, it is crucial to avoid alcohol while taking isoniazid to prevent potential liver complications. Choice A is incorrect because isoniazid is typically taken with food to reduce gastrointestinal upset. Choice C is incorrect because antacids can decrease the absorption of isoniazid. Choice D is incorrect as there is no specific recommendation to increase leafy green vegetable intake when taking isoniazid.
4. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?
- A. Weight gain
- B. Frequent urination
- C. Hypokalemia
- D. Bleeding gums
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Bleeding gums are a sign of excessive anticoagulation with warfarin, indicating a potential risk of bleeding complications. It is crucial to report this finding promptly to the provider for further assessment and adjustment of the medication regimen to prevent serious bleeding events. Weight gain, frequent urination, and hypokalemia are not typically associated with warfarin use and are not immediate concerns that require urgent reporting to the provider.
5. When assessing a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN), which laboratory value is most important for the nurse to monitor regularly?
- A. Albumin
- B. Calcium
- C. Glucose
- D. Alkaline phosphatase
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most important laboratory value to monitor regularly in clients receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) is glucose. TPN solutions contain high concentrations of glucose, which can lead to hyperglycemia. Monitoring glucose levels is crucial to detect and prevent hyperglycemia, a common complication associated with TPN administration. Albumin (Choice A) levels are not typically affected by TPN administration. Calcium (Choice B) and alkaline phosphatase (Choice D) are not directly impacted by TPN and are not the primary values to monitor in TPN therapy.
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