a nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for atenolol which of the following instructions should the nurse inclu
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ATI LPN

LPN Pharmacology Practice Test

1. A client has a new prescription for atenolol. Which of the following instructions should be included in the discharge teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to monitor their heart rate daily when taking atenolol. Atenolol can lead to bradycardia, a slow heart rate. By monitoring heart rate daily, the client can promptly identify any significant changes and seek medical attention if necessary. This proactive approach enables early detection of potential adverse effects of atenolol, contributing to the client's safety and well-being. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because taking atenolol at bedtime, increasing potassium-rich foods intake, or avoiding dairy products are not specific instructions related to the potential side effects of atenolol.

2. A client has a new prescription for rifampin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to inform the client to expect red-orange discoloration of body fluids when taking rifampin. Rifampin is known to cause this side effect, which is harmless but can be surprising to patients. It is important for the nurse to educate the client about this expected change to prevent unnecessary concern or alarm. Monitoring for hyperglycemia is not directly related to rifampin, and taking the medication with food or avoiding dairy products are not specific instructions for this medication.

3. The client needs instruction on using a metered-dose inhaler (MDI). Which instruction should be given?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct technique for using a metered-dose inhaler (MDI) involves exhaling fully before inhaling deeply while pressing the canister to ensure effective delivery of the medication. Choice A is incorrect as exhaling should precede inhaling. Choice C is incorrect as taking two short breaths is not part of the correct technique. Choice D is incorrect as there is no need to hold the breath for a specific time after inhaling the medication.

4. The client with a diagnosis of heart failure is receiving furosemide (Lasix). Which laboratory value is most important for the nurse to monitor?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum potassium. When a client is receiving furosemide, a loop diuretic, it can lead to potassium loss. Monitoring the serum potassium levels is crucial to prevent life-threatening complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Blood glucose (Choice A) is not directly impacted by furosemide. Serum sodium (Choice B) may be affected, but monitoring potassium is more critical due to the risk of arrhythmias. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) (Choice D) is important for assessing kidney function but is not the most crucial value to monitor in a client taking furosemide.

5. A client is taking haloperidol. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Tardive dyskinesia. Tardive dyskinesia is a serious side effect associated with the long-term use of haloperidol. It is characterized by involuntary movements of the face, tongue, and extremities. Early detection is crucial as tardive dyskinesia may be irreversible and should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because weight gain, dry mouth, and tremors are common side effects of haloperidol but are not as concerning as tardive dyskinesia. While they should still be monitored and managed, tardive dyskinesia requires immediate attention due to its potentially irreversible nature.

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