Nursing Elites

1. The client's B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) level is 691 pg/mL. Which intervention should the nurse implement when providing care for the client?

• A. Take daily weights and monitor trends.
• B. Encourage fluid intake to improve hydration.
• C. Elevate the legs above the level of the heart.
• D. Position the client supine with the head of the bed at 30 degrees.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Elevated BNP levels are indicative of heart failure, which often causes fluid retention and weight gain. Taking daily weights and monitoring trends allows the nurse to assess for changes in fluid status. This intervention helps in evaluating the effectiveness of the treatment plan and identifying worsening heart failure symptoms early. Encouraging fluid intake (Choice B) might exacerbate fluid overload in a client with elevated BNP levels. Elevating the legs (Choice C) and positioning the client supine with the head of the bed at 30 degrees (Choice D) are interventions more suitable for clients with hypotension, not specifically indicated for managing elevated BNP levels.

2. The healthcare provider is evaluating the effects of care for a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which limb observations should the provider note as indicating the least success in meeting the outcome criteria for this problem?

• A. Pedal edema that is 3+
• B. Slight residual calf tenderness
• C. Skin warm, equal temperature in both legs
• D. Calf girth 1/8 inch larger than the unaffected limb

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Significant pedal edema, indicated by 3+, suggests ongoing or worsening venous insufficiency. This can be a sign that the care provided has not been effective in managing the deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and the associated complications. Monitoring and addressing pedal edema is crucial in the evaluation of DVT treatment outcomes and overall patient care. Choices B, C, and D are not indicative of the least success in meeting the outcome criteria for DVT. Slight residual calf tenderness, skin warmth, and a slightly larger calf girth do not necessarily point towards treatment failure or lack of improvement in DVT management.

3. A client with a history of angina is scheduled for an exercise electrocardiography (ECG) test. The nurse should explain that the purpose of this test is to evaluate which factor?

• A. The heart's response to physical stress
• B. The client's overall physical fitness
• C. The presence of electrolyte imbalances
• D. The effectiveness of anti-anginal medications

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An exercise electrocardiography (ECG) test is used to evaluate the heart's response to physical stress. During the test, the heart's electrical activity is monitored while the client exercises, helping to identify any areas of ischemia or abnormal rhythms. This test helps healthcare providers assess the heart's function and detect any potential issues related to angina or other cardiac conditions. Choice B, the client's overall physical fitness, is incorrect because the test primarily focuses on the heart's response to stress rather than the client's general physical fitness. Choice C, the presence of electrolyte imbalances, is incorrect as this test is not specifically designed to evaluate electrolyte levels. Choice D, the effectiveness of anti-anginal medications, is incorrect as the main purpose of the test is to assess the heart's response to physical stress, not medication effectiveness.

4. A client with peptic ulcer disease is being taught about managing the disorder. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. 'I should take NSAIDs for pain relief.'
• B. 'I should avoid drinking alcohol.'
• C. 'I should eat small, frequent meals.'
• D. 'I should drink milk to coat my stomach.'

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Avoiding alcohol is crucial in managing peptic ulcer disease as it helps prevent irritation and further damage to the stomach lining. Alcohol can worsen symptoms and hinder the healing process in individuals with this condition. Choice A is incorrect because NSAIDs can worsen peptic ulcers by irritating the stomach lining. Choice C is a correct dietary recommendation for managing peptic ulcer disease as it helps reduce stomach acid secretion and promotes healing. Choice D is incorrect as milk may temporarily soothe ulcer pain, but it can stimulate acid production and worsen symptoms in the long run.

5. The client with a new prescription for warfarin (Coumadin) is receiving teaching from the LPN/LVN. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the medication?

• A. I will avoid eating foods high in vitamin K, like spinach and broccoli.
• B. I will take aspirin instead of acetaminophen for headaches while on this medication.
• C. I can stop taking the medication once my symptoms improve.
• D. I will double my dose if I miss a dose to catch up.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Clients prescribed with warfarin (Coumadin) need to maintain a consistent intake of vitamin K and avoid sudden increases in foods rich in vitamin K as it can interfere with the effectiveness of the medication. Choice A, 'I will avoid eating foods high in vitamin K, like spinach and broccoli,' is the correct statement indicating an understanding of the medication. This choice demonstrates knowledge of the importance of consistent vitamin K intake to prevent fluctuations in warfarin's effectiveness. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B suggests a substitution that is not advised without consulting a healthcare provider. Choice C is incorrect as stopping warfarin suddenly can lead to serious health risks. Choice D is unsafe and incorrect since doubling the dose is not the correct action if a dose is missed.

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