Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is assisting in the care of a client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is on oxygen therapy. Which action should the nurse take to ensure the client's safety?

• A. Set the oxygen flow rate to 4 liters per minute.
• B. Remove oxygen while the client is eating.
• C. Ensure the client wears a nasal cannula instead of a face mask.
• D. Maintain the oxygen flow rate at the lowest level that relieves hypoxia.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: For clients with COPD, too much oxygen can suppress their drive to breathe, leading to hypoventilation. Therefore, the nurse should maintain the oxygen flow rate at the lowest level that relieves hypoxia to prevent complications while ensuring adequate oxygenation. Setting the oxygen flow rate too high (Choice A) can be detrimental for the client with COPD. Removing oxygen while the client is eating (Choice B) can compromise oxygenation, which is essential even during meals. While nasal cannulas are commonly used, the choice of oxygen delivery device depends on the client's needs; there may be situations where a face mask (Choice C) is more appropriate.

2. The healthcare provider is evaluating the effects of care for a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which limb observations should the provider note as indicating the least success in meeting the outcome criteria for this problem?

• A. Pedal edema that is 3+
• B. Slight residual calf tenderness
• C. Skin warm, equal temperature in both legs
• D. Calf girth 1/8 inch larger than the unaffected limb

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Significant pedal edema, indicated by 3+, suggests ongoing or worsening venous insufficiency. This can be a sign that the care provided has not been effective in managing the deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and the associated complications. Monitoring and addressing pedal edema is crucial in the evaluation of DVT treatment outcomes and overall patient care. Choices B, C, and D are not indicative of the least success in meeting the outcome criteria for DVT. Slight residual calf tenderness, skin warmth, and a slightly larger calf girth do not necessarily point towards treatment failure or lack of improvement in DVT management.

3. The healthcare provider is reinforcing instructions to a client with heart failure who is prescribed a low-sodium diet. The provider should advise the client to choose which food item?

• A. Canned soup
• B. Fresh vegetables
• C. Processed cheese
• D. Pickled vegetables

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Fresh vegetables are a suitable choice for clients on a low-sodium diet as they are naturally low in sodium and provide essential nutrients. In contrast, canned soup, processed cheese, and pickled vegetables tend to be high in sodium, which is not recommended for individuals with heart failure and on a low-sodium diet. Fresh vegetables are also rich in fiber, vitamins, and minerals, making them a healthier option compared to the other choices provided.

4. A client with atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). The nurse should monitor which laboratory test to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. Complete blood count (CBC)
• D. Fibrinogen level

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy in a client with atrial fibrillation, the nurse should assess the Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) levels. These tests help determine the clotting ability of the blood and ensure that the client's anticoagulation levels are within the therapeutic range, reducing the risk of bleeding or clotting complications. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) (Choice B) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy. Complete blood count (CBC) (Choice C) provides information about the cellular components of blood but does not directly assess the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. Fibrinogen level (Choice D) is not typically used to monitor warfarin therapy; it reflects the level of fibrinogen in the blood, which is involved in the clotting process.

5. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed theophylline. The nurse should monitor the client for which sign of theophylline toxicity?

• A. Drowsiness
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Nausea
• D. Constipation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Nausea is an early sign of theophylline toxicity. The nurse should closely monitor the client for this symptom as it can progress to more severe toxicity. Nausea can be a warning sign to prevent further complications and adjust the dosage as necessary. Drowsiness (choice A) is a common side effect of theophylline but not a specific sign of toxicity. Bradycardia (choice B) and constipation (choice D) are not typically associated with theophylline toxicity. Therefore, the correct answer is C.

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