ATI LPN
LPN Pharmacology Assessment A
1. A client with peripheral artery disease (PAD) complains of pain in the legs while walking. Which instruction should the LPN/LVN reinforce to help alleviate the client's symptoms?
- A. Walk until the pain becomes severe, then rest.
- B. Perform leg exercises while sitting.
- C. Elevate the legs on pillows while resting.
- D. Take frequent breaks and walk shorter distances.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to take frequent breaks and walk shorter distances. This instruction helps alleviate symptoms in clients with peripheral artery disease (PAD) by allowing them to manage pain and discomfort more effectively. Option A is incorrect as waiting for the pain to become severe before resting can exacerbate symptoms. Option B, performing leg exercises while sitting, may not directly address the issue of pain during walking. Option C, elevating the legs on pillows while resting, is beneficial for other conditions like edema but may not specifically help alleviate pain while walking in PAD clients.
2. A client is scheduled for a coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) surgery. The nurse should prepare the client by reinforcing information about which post-operative care measure?
- A. You will be on bed rest for the first 48 hours after surgery.
- B. You will be encouraged to cough and deep breathe frequently.
- C. You will be discharged within 24 hours if no complications arise.
- D. You will not be able to eat or drink for 24 hours after surgery.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Encouraging the client to cough and deep breathe frequently is essential post-operative care to prevent respiratory complications such as atelectasis and pneumonia after CABG surgery. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because post-CABG surgery, early mobilization is encouraged to prevent complications such as deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and pneumonia. Discharge within 24 hours is unlikely after CABG surgery, and early oral intake is encouraged to promote recovery and prevent complications.
3. The healthcare provider is teaching a client about the use of nitroglycerin patches for angina pectoris. Which instruction should the healthcare provider include?
- A. Apply the patch to the same site each day
- B. Remove the patch at bedtime to prevent tolerance
- C. Cover the patch with a bandage to keep it in place
- D. Rotate the application site every 24 hours
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Rotating the application site every 24 hours is crucial when using nitroglycerin patches to prevent skin irritation and ensure consistent absorption of the medication. By rotating the site, the risk of local skin reactions is reduced, and the effectiveness of the nitroglycerin patch is maintained. Applying the patch to the same site each day (Choice A) can lead to skin irritation. Removing the patch at bedtime (Choice B) is not necessary as long as the prescribed wearing schedule is followed. Covering the patch with a bandage (Choice C) is not recommended as it may interfere with proper absorption.
4. A client receives discharge teaching for a new prescription of lithium. Which instruction should be included?
- A. Take the medication with food.
- B. Increase your intake of sodium.
- C. Monitor for signs of hypercalcemia.
- D. Avoid consuming dairy products.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction to include when a client receives discharge teaching for a new prescription of lithium is to increase their intake of sodium. Lithium can lead to decreased sodium levels, putting the individual at risk of developing hyponatremia. By increasing sodium intake, the client can counteract this risk, maintain a proper sodium balance, and prevent complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because taking lithium with food, monitoring for signs of hypercalcemia, and avoiding dairy products are not directly related to managing the side effects or risks associated with lithium therapy.
5. The nurse is preparing to administer an intravenous dose of furosemide (Lasix) to a client with heart failure. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Hyperkalemia
- C. Hypokalemia
- D. Hypoglycemia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that works by promoting the excretion of water and electrolytes, including potassium. This loss of potassium can lead to hypokalemia, which can be a potential side effect of furosemide administration. Hypokalemia can result in cardiac dysrhythmias and other complications, especially in clients with heart failure who may already have compromised cardiac function. Therefore, monitoring for signs of hypokalemia, such as muscle weakness, cardiac irregularities, and fatigue, is essential when administering furosemide. Choice A, hypertension, is incorrect because furosemide is actually used to treat hypertension by reducing excess fluid in the body. Choice B, hyperkalemia, is incorrect as furosemide causes potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. Choice D, hypoglycemia, is unrelated to the mechanism of action of furosemide and is not a common side effect associated with its administration.
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