ATI LPN
Pharmacology for LPN
1. A client with chronic stable angina is prescribed nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) for chest pain. The nurse should include which instruction when teaching the client about this medication?
- A. Take nitroglycerin at the first sign of chest pain.
- B. Swallow the tablet whole with water.
- C. Take nitroglycerin with meals to prevent stomach upset.
- D. Store nitroglycerin in a cool, dry place.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction when teaching a client about nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) is to take it at the first sign of chest pain. Nitroglycerin works rapidly to dilate blood vessels, improving blood flow to the heart muscle. Taking it promptly can help alleviate symptoms quickly and prevent the condition from worsening. Choice B is incorrect because nitroglycerin is usually taken sublingually (under the tongue) and not swallowed. Choice C is incorrect because nitroglycerin is not typically taken with meals. Choice D is incorrect because nitroglycerin should be stored in its original container away from heat and light.
2. The client with a new prescription for warfarin (Coumadin) is receiving teaching from the LPN/LVN. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the medication?
- A. I will avoid eating foods high in vitamin K, like spinach and broccoli.
- B. I will take aspirin instead of acetaminophen for headaches while on this medication.
- C. I can stop taking the medication once my symptoms improve.
- D. I will double my dose if I miss a dose to catch up.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Clients prescribed with warfarin (Coumadin) need to maintain a consistent intake of vitamin K and avoid sudden increases in foods rich in vitamin K as it can interfere with the effectiveness of the medication. Choice A, 'I will avoid eating foods high in vitamin K, like spinach and broccoli,' is the correct statement indicating an understanding of the medication. This choice demonstrates knowledge of the importance of consistent vitamin K intake to prevent fluctuations in warfarin's effectiveness. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B suggests a substitution that is not advised without consulting a healthcare provider. Choice C is incorrect as stopping warfarin suddenly can lead to serious health risks. Choice D is unsafe and incorrect since doubling the dose is not the correct action if a dose is missed.
3. The client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving anticoagulant therapy. Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?
- A. Complete blood count (CBC)
- B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
- C. Serum electrolytes
- D. Liver function tests
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the correct laboratory test to monitor the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy, especially with heparin. A prolonged aPTT indicates effective anticoagulation, reducing the risk of further clot formation in the client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). The other options, such as complete blood count (CBC), serum electrolytes, and liver function tests, do not directly assess the therapeutic effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy. Therefore, the correct answer is B.
4. A nurse is assessing a client who is taking amiodarone. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Dry skin
- B. Weight loss
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Productive cough
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A productive cough can indicate pulmonary toxicity, a serious side effect of amiodarone, and should be reported. Dry skin is not typically associated with amiodarone use. Weight loss is a common side effect of amiodarone but not generally a cause for concern unless severe. Bradycardia is a known side effect of amiodarone and may not necessarily require immediate reporting unless symptomatic.
5. The nurse is assisting with the care of a client diagnosed with heart failure. Which finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?
- A. Weight gain of 2 pounds in 2 days
- B. Increased urination at night
- C. Mild shortness of breath on exertion
- D. Decreased appetite and fatigue
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A weight gain of 2 pounds in 2 days is concerning in a client with heart failure as it can indicate fluid retention and worsening of the condition. This finding requires immediate medical attention to prevent further complications. Increased urination at night (choice B) may be due to various reasons like diuretic use and is not an immediate concern. Mild shortness of breath on exertion (choice C) is expected in clients with heart failure and may not require immediate reporting. Decreased appetite and fatigue (choice D) are common symptoms in heart failure but are not as urgent as sudden weight gain.
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