Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic stable angina is prescribed nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) for chest pain. The nurse should include which instruction when teaching the client about this medication?

• A. Take nitroglycerin at the first sign of chest pain.
• B. Swallow the tablet whole with water.
• C. Take nitroglycerin with meals to prevent stomach upset.
• D. Store nitroglycerin in a cool, dry place.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction when teaching a client about nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) is to take it at the first sign of chest pain. Nitroglycerin works rapidly to dilate blood vessels, improving blood flow to the heart muscle. Taking it promptly can help alleviate symptoms quickly and prevent the condition from worsening. Choice B is incorrect because nitroglycerin is usually taken sublingually (under the tongue) and not swallowed. Choice C is incorrect because nitroglycerin is not typically taken with meals. Choice D is incorrect because nitroglycerin should be stored in its original container away from heat and light.

2. A client is admitted with an arterial ischemic leg ulcer. The nurse expects to note that this ulcer has which typical characteristic?

• A. Dark pink base
• B. Deep and painful
• C. Accompanied by very slight pain
• D. Brown pigmentation of surrounding skin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Arterial ischemic ulcers are typically characterized by being deep and painful, often with a pale or necrotic base. The lack of adequate blood flow leads to tissue damage, resulting in these ulcers having a deep appearance and causing significant pain to the individual. The other options are not commonly associated with arterial ischemic ulcers; a dark pink base, very slight pain, or brown pigmentation of surrounding skin are not typical features of this type of ulcer.

3. What predisposing factor most likely contributed to the proximal end of the femur fracture in a 62-year-old woman who lives alone and tripped on a rug in her home?

• A. Failing eyesight leading to an unsafe environment
• B. Renal osteodystrophy from chronic kidney disease (CKD)
• C. Osteoporosis from declining hormone levels
• D. Cerebral vessel changes causing transient ischemic attacks

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most likely predisposing factor contributing to the proximal end of the femur fracture in a 62-year-old woman is osteoporosis resulting from declining hormone levels. Osteoporosis weakens the bones, making them more susceptible to fractures, especially in older adults, particularly women. In this case, the fracture can be attributed to the bone density loss associated with osteoporosis, which is a common concern in postmenopausal women. Choices A, B, and D are less likely to have directly contributed to the femur fracture in this scenario. Failing eyesight may increase the risk of falls but does not directly weaken the bones. Renal osteodystrophy affects bone health but is less common in this age group. Cerebral vessel changes causing transient ischemic attacks are related to vascular issues, not bone strength.

4. The nurse is caring for a client who has returned to the unit after undergoing a cardiac catheterization. The nurse should monitor for which common complication following this procedure?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Hypotension
• C. Hemorrhage
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Following a cardiac catheterization, a common complication to monitor for is bleeding or hemorrhage at the catheter insertion site. Hemorrhage is a significant concern due to the potential for rapid blood loss, leading to hypovolemic shock and other serious complications. Monitoring for signs of bleeding, such as swelling, hematoma, or drop in hemoglobin levels, is crucial for timely intervention. Hypertension is not a common complication post-cardiac catheterization; instead, hypotension may occur due to vasovagal response or bleeding. Hyperglycemia is not typically associated with cardiac catheterization unless the client has pre-existing diabetes or stress-induced hyperglycemia.

5. The client has atrial fibrillation and is receiving warfarin (Coumadin) therapy. Which laboratory test should be monitored to evaluate the effectiveness of the warfarin therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. Complete blood count (CBC)
• D. Fibrinogen levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring the Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) is crucial for assessing the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. These tests help determine the clotting ability of the blood and ensure that the client is within the desired therapeutic range to prevent clotting events or bleeding complications. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) (Choice B) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin. Complete blood count (CBC) (Choice C) and fibrinogen levels (Choice D) do not directly assess the effectiveness of warfarin therapy in the same way that PT and INR do.

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