Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is evaluating the effects of care for a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which limb observations should the provider note as indicating the least success in meeting the outcome criteria for this problem?

• A. Pedal edema that is 3+
• B. Slight residual calf tenderness
• C. Skin warm, equal temperature in both legs
• D. Calf girth 1/8 inch larger than the unaffected limb

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Significant pedal edema, indicated by 3+, suggests ongoing or worsening venous insufficiency. This can be a sign that the care provided has not been effective in managing the deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and the associated complications. Monitoring and addressing pedal edema is crucial in the evaluation of DVT treatment outcomes and overall patient care. Choices B, C, and D are not indicative of the least success in meeting the outcome criteria for DVT. Slight residual calf tenderness, skin warmth, and a slightly larger calf girth do not necessarily point towards treatment failure or lack of improvement in DVT management.

2. A client has a new prescription for metoprolol. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Monitor your blood pressure daily.
• B. Take the medication with food.
• C. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
• D. Avoid consuming grapefruit juice.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, 'Monitor your blood pressure daily.' When a client is prescribed metoprolol, it is important to monitor blood pressure daily because the medication can cause hypotension, leading to low blood pressure. Regular monitoring allows for the early detection of any potential issues and adjustment of treatment if necessary. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Taking metoprolol with food is not necessary, increasing potassium-rich foods is not directly related to metoprolol therapy, and avoiding grapefruit juice is more relevant for certain other medications that interact with grapefruit.

3. The LPN/LVN is reinforcing instructions to a client on the use of a metered-dose inhaler. The nurse should recognize that the client is using the inhaler correctly if the client takes which action?

• A. Takes a deep breath and then exhales just before administration
• B. Holds the mouthpiece 1 to 2 inches from the mouth
• C. Inhales the medication and then exhales immediately after administration
• D. Performs 3 short inhalations and then exhales deeply after administration

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When using a metered-dose inhaler, the client should take a deep breath and then exhale just before administration. This technique helps ensure that the medication is inhaled effectively. By exhaling before administration, the client can fully inhale the medication into the lungs, maximizing its therapeutic effects. Choice B is incorrect because holding the mouthpiece 1 to 2 inches from the mouth is not a crucial step for using a metered-dose inhaler correctly. Choice C is incorrect because inhaling the medication and then exhaling immediately after administration would not allow the medication to be adequately absorbed into the lungs. Choice D is incorrect because performing 3 short inhalations and then exhaling deeply after administration is not the correct technique for using a metered-dose inhaler.

4. The client with atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory test should be monitored to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. Complete blood count (CBC)
• D. Fibrinogen level

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) is crucial when a client is on warfarin therapy. These tests assess the clotting ability of the blood and help determine the appropriate dosage of warfarin to prevent complications such as bleeding or clotting events. PT and INR values within the therapeutic range indicate the effectiveness of warfarin in managing atrial fibrillation. Choice B, activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT), is not typically used to monitor warfarin therapy; it is more commonly used to assess the effectiveness of heparin therapy. Choice C, complete blood count (CBC), does not directly assess the anticoagulant effect of warfarin. Choice D, fibrinogen level, is not a primary test for monitoring warfarin therapy; it is more relevant in assessing conditions like disseminated intravascular coagulation.

5. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with hypertension who is receiving a beta blocker. The provider should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Hypertension
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Beta blockers are medications that can cause bradycardia by slowing down the heart rate. It is essential to monitor for this side effect in clients receiving beta blockers, as it can lead to serious complications such as decreased cardiac output and hypotension. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because beta blockers are not expected to cause tachycardia (fast heart rate), hypertension (high blood pressure), or hyperglycemia (high blood sugar levels).

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