ATI LPN
PN Nutrition Assessment ATI
1. It has been generally accepted that the percentage of total daily calories supplied by fats should be no more than:
- A. 10% to 15%.
- B. 10% to 35%.
- C. 20% to 35%.
- D. 40% to 55%.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The recommended fat intake is between 20% to 35% of total daily calories. This range is considered optimal for maintaining a healthy diet. Choice A (10% to 15%) is too low and might not provide enough essential fats for the body. Choice B (10% to 35%) includes an upper limit that exceeds the generally accepted range. Choice D (40% to 55%) suggests a fat intake that is higher than what is recommended, which could lead to health issues if consumed regularly.
2. A healthcare professional is interested in studying the incidence of infant death in a particular city and wants to compare that city's rate to the state's rate. What state resource is most likely to provide this information?
- A. Disease registry.
- B. Department of Health.
- C. Bureau of Vital Statistics.
- D. Census data.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The Bureau of Vital Statistics collects data on births and deaths, including infant mortality rates. This data is crucial for healthcare professionals to analyze and compare rates between different regions.
3. A nurse is collecting data from a client who has bipolar disorder and is experiencing acute mania. Which of the following findings is the nurse's priority?
- A. Pressured speech
- B. Increased appetite
- C. Lack of sleep
- D. Mood swings
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Lack of sleep.' In a client experiencing acute mania due to bipolar disorder, lack of sleep is the priority finding for the nurse to address. Sleep deprivation can exacerbate symptoms, lead to exhaustion, and increase the risk of further complications. Pressured speech, increased appetite, and mood swings are also common in acute mania, but addressing the lack of sleep takes precedence due to its significant impact on the client's well-being and recovery.
4. The patient described in the preceding questions has a positive H. pylori antibody blood test. She is compliant with the medical regimen you prescribe. Although her symptoms initially respond, she returns to see you six months later with the same symptoms. Which of the following statements is correct?
- A. She is at high risk for reinfection with H. pylori.
- B. A positive serum IgG indicates that eradication of H. pylori was unsuccessful.
- C. The urease breath test is an ideal test to document failure of eradication.
- D. Dyspepsia usually improves with H. pylori eradication.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Reinfection with H. pylori is rare, and the persistence of infection usually indicates poor compliance with the medical regimen or antibiotic resistance. A positive serum IgG may persist indefinitely and cannot alone determine the failure of eradication. However, a decrease in quantitative IgG levels has been used to confirm treatment success. The urease breath test is recommended to assess the failure of eradication as it can detect the presence of H. pylori in the stomach, indicating treatment failure if positive.
5. While providing education about the use of lorazepam, which of the following should be included?
- A. It can cause dependency
- B. It can be taken with alcohol
- C. It has no side effects
- D. It is a stimulant
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'It can cause dependency.' Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine known to cause dependency, so it is crucial for clients to be informed about this potential risk. Choice B is incorrect as combining lorazepam with alcohol can lead to increased sedation and other adverse effects. Choice C is incorrect because lorazepam, like any medication, can have side effects such as drowsiness, dizziness, or confusion. Choice D is also incorrect as lorazepam is a sedative-hypnotic medication, not a stimulant.
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