Nursing Elites

1. An ambulatory clinic nurse is interviewing a client who is complaining of flu-like symptoms. The client suddenly develops chest pain. Which question best assists the nurse in discriminating pain caused by a non-cardiac problem?

• A. Can you describe the pain to me?
• B. Have you ever experienced this pain before?
• C. Does the pain get worse when you breathe in?
• D. Can you rate the pain on a scale of 1 to 10, with 10 being the worst?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Pain that worsens with breathing in can indicate pleuritic chest pain, which is non-cardiac in nature. This specific question helps in differentiating non-cardiac causes from cardiac causes of chest pain, as cardiac pain typically does not worsen with breathing. Choices A, B, and D are less specific in discriminating between cardiac and non-cardiac chest pain.

2. The LPN/LVN is assisting in the care of a client with a diagnosis of heart failure who is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin). Which laboratory result should the nurse monitor closely?

• A. Serum sodium
• B. Serum potassium
• C. Serum calcium
• D. Serum glucose

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is serum potassium. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial when a client is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin) because low potassium levels can increase the risk of digoxin toxicity. Digoxin and low potassium levels can lead to serious cardiac complications, such as arrhythmias. Therefore, close monitoring of serum potassium is essential to prevent adverse effects and ensure the safe administration of digoxin in clients with heart failure. Serum sodium, serum calcium, and serum glucose levels are also important laboratory values to monitor in clients with heart failure, but they are not directly associated with the risk of digoxin toxicity. Monitoring these values helps in assessing overall health status, fluid balance, and metabolic functions in the client.

3. A client with atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). The nurse should monitor which laboratory test to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. Complete blood count (CBC)
• D. Fibrinogen level

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy in a client with atrial fibrillation, the nurse should assess the Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) levels. These tests help determine the clotting ability of the blood and ensure that the client's anticoagulation levels are within the therapeutic range, reducing the risk of bleeding or clotting complications. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) (Choice B) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy. Complete blood count (CBC) (Choice C) provides information about the cellular components of blood but does not directly assess the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. Fibrinogen level (Choice D) is not typically used to monitor warfarin therapy; it reflects the level of fibrinogen in the blood, which is involved in the clotting process.

4. A client with chronic heart failure has been prescribed furosemide (Lasix). Which instruction should the nurse reinforce to the client regarding this medication?

• A. Take the medication with food.
• B. Limit foods high in potassium while taking this medication.
• C. Report any muscle cramps or weakness to your healthcare provider.
• D. Expect to urinate more frequently while on this medication.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to reinforce to the client regarding furosemide (Lasix) is to report any muscle cramps or weakness to the healthcare provider. Muscle cramps or weakness may indicate hypokalemia, a potential side effect of furosemide. Monitoring and reporting these symptoms promptly can help in preventing complications related to electrolyte imbalances. Choice A is incorrect because furosemide should be taken on an empty stomach. Choice B is not directly related to furosemide use; in fact, foods high in potassium may be beneficial for clients taking furosemide to prevent hypokalemia. Choice D is a common expected side effect of furosemide due to its diuretic action but is not as crucial to report as potential signs of electrolyte imbalances.

5. A client has a new prescription for prednisone. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. You may experience weight gain.
• B. Increase your intake of vitamin K.
• C. Expect increased urinary output.
• D. You may have dark, tarry stools.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'You may experience weight gain.' Prednisone commonly causes weight gain as a side effect, so it is important for the client to be aware of this potential outcome. Monitoring weight changes can be essential in managing the medication's effects and overall health. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing vitamin K intake is not specifically related to prednisone use. Expecting increased urinary output is not a common side effect of prednisone. Dark, tarry stools are more commonly associated with gastrointestinal bleeding rather than prednisone use.

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