Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of myocardial infarction (MI) is being discharged with a prescription for nitroglycerin sublingual tablets. Which instruction should the nurse reinforce?

• A. Store the tablets in a cool, dry place away from light.
• B. Take a tablet every 5 minutes if chest pain occurs.
• C. Place the tablets under the tongue for sublingual absorption.
• D. Take the tablets without water for faster effect.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Nitroglycerin tablets are light and moisture-sensitive, so they should be stored in a cool, dry place away from light to maintain their effectiveness. Option B advises taking a tablet every 5 minutes, which may lead to overdose as this frequency is too high. Option C emphasizes the correct administration route for sublingual tablets. Option D is incorrect as water is not needed for the tablets to take effect.

2. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed a metered-dose inhaler (MDI) with a spacer. Which instruction should the nurse reinforce to ensure correct use?

• A. Inhale deeply and slowly after activating the MDI.
• B. Hold the breath for 5 seconds after inhaling the medication.
• C. Rinse the mouth immediately after using the MDI.
• D. Exhale fully before placing the mouthpiece in the mouth.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Inhaling deeply and slowly after activating the MDI is the correct instruction to ensure effective delivery of the medication to the lungs. This technique helps the medication reach the lower airways where it can be most beneficial in managing COPD symptoms. Inhaling too quickly or not deeply enough may result in improper drug delivery and reduce the effectiveness of the treatment. Holding the breath for 5 seconds after inhaling the medication (Choice B) may not be necessary and could cause discomfort without additional benefits. Rinsing the mouth immediately after using the MDI (Choice C) is not necessary unless specified by the healthcare provider. Exhaling fully before placing the mouthpiece in the mouth (Choice D) is not ideal as it may result in inadequate medication delivery to the lungs.

3. The LPN/LVN is assisting in caring for a client in the telemetry unit who is receiving an intravenous infusion of 1000 mL of 5% dextrose with 40 mEq of potassium chloride. Which occurrence observed on the cardiac monitor indicates the presence of hyperkalemia?

• A. Tall, peaked T waves
• B. ST segment depressions
• C. Shortened P-R intervals
• D. Shortening of the QRS complex

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In hyperkalemia, tall, peaked T waves are a distinct ECG finding. These T waves can be seen as a result of increased serum potassium levels, affecting the repolarization phase of the cardiac action potential. It is crucial for healthcare providers to recognize this ECG change promptly as hyperkalemia can lead to serious cardiac arrhythmias and complications. ST segment depressions, shortened P-R intervals, and shortening of the QRS complex are not typically associated with hyperkalemia. ST segment depressions are more indicative of myocardial ischemia or infarction. Shortened P-R intervals may be seen in conditions like Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome. Shortening of the QRS complex is associated with conditions affecting the conduction system of the heart, such as bundle branch blocks.

4. After a client with a history of myocardial infarction (MI) is prescribed aspirin, which instruction should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?

• A. Take the aspirin with food to prevent gastrointestinal upset
• B. Discontinue the aspirin if you experience ringing in your ears
• C. Take the aspirin at bedtime to minimize side effects
• D. Avoid taking aspirin if you are also taking other NSAIDs

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction is to take aspirin with food to prevent gastrointestinal upset. Aspirin can irritate the stomach lining, leading to potential gastrointestinal issues. Taking it with food helps reduce this risk by providing a protective layer in the stomach. This is a common recommendation to minimize the risk of gastrointestinal side effects when taking aspirin. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B is not a typical reason to discontinue aspirin, as ringing in the ears is not a common side effect of aspirin. Choice C does not have a direct correlation to minimizing side effects of aspirin. Choice D is inaccurate because while caution should be exercised when taking aspirin with other NSAIDs due to the increased risk of bleeding, it does not mean aspirin should be entirely avoided if other NSAIDs are being taken.

5. During an assessment, a client taking valproic acid exhibits elevated liver enzymes. What finding should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Elevated liver enzymes
• B. Weight loss
• C. Dry mouth
• D. Increased appetite

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Elevated liver enzymes are a critical finding that the nurse should report to the provider when assessing a client taking valproic acid. It can be indicative of hepatotoxicity, a severe side effect associated with valproic acid use. Timely reporting and intervention are essential to prevent further complications and ensure the client's safety and well-being. Choices B, C, and D are not directly related to valproic acid use or the manifestation of hepatotoxicity. Weight loss, dry mouth, and increased appetite are not typically associated with elevated liver enzymes in the context of valproic acid administration.

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