Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of myocardial infarction (MI) is being discharged with a prescription for nitroglycerin sublingual tablets. Which instruction should the nurse reinforce?

• A. Store the tablets in a cool, dry place away from light.
• B. Take a tablet every 5 minutes if chest pain occurs.
• C. Place the tablets under the tongue for sublingual absorption.
• D. Take the tablets without water for faster effect.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Nitroglycerin tablets are light and moisture-sensitive, so they should be stored in a cool, dry place away from light to maintain their effectiveness. Option B advises taking a tablet every 5 minutes, which may lead to overdose as this frequency is too high. Option C emphasizes the correct administration route for sublingual tablets. Option D is incorrect as water is not needed for the tablets to take effect.

2. A client is taking haloperidol. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Tremors
• D. Tardive dyskinesia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Tardive dyskinesia. Tardive dyskinesia is a serious side effect associated with the long-term use of haloperidol. It is characterized by involuntary movements of the face, tongue, and extremities. Early detection is crucial as tardive dyskinesia may be irreversible and should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because weight gain, dry mouth, and tremors are common side effects of haloperidol but are not as concerning as tardive dyskinesia. While they should still be monitored and managed, tardive dyskinesia requires immediate attention due to its potentially irreversible nature.

3. A client with schizophrenia taking clozapine is being assessed by a nurse. Which of the following findings is the priority for the nurse to report to the provider?

• A. Elevated blood pressure
• B. Fever
• C. Weight gain
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority finding for the nurse to report to the provider is B: Fever. Fever can be an indication of agranulocytosis, a potentially life-threatening condition associated with clozapine. Agranulocytosis is characterized by a significant decrease in white blood cells, making the client susceptible to severe infections. Prompt reporting of fever is crucial to prevent serious complications. Elevated blood pressure (Choice A), weight gain (Choice C), and dry mouth (Choice D) are important to monitor but are not as immediately concerning as fever, which could indicate a severe adverse reaction requiring urgent medical attention.

4. A client in the emergency department is bleeding profusely from a gunshot wound to the abdomen. In what position should the nurse immediately place the client to promote maintenance of the client's blood pressure above a systolic pressure of 90 mm Hg?

• A. Place the client in a 45-degree Trendelenburg position to promote cerebral blood flow.
• B. Turn the client prone to apply pressure on the abdominal wound to help staunch the bleeding.
• C. Maintain the client in a supine position to reduce diaphragmatic pressure and visualize the wound.
• D. Put the client on the right side to apply pressure to the liver and spleen to stop hemorrhaging.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with profuse bleeding from a gunshot wound to the abdomen, maintaining the client in a supine position is essential to manage blood pressure. This position helps in reducing diaphragmatic pressure and allows for proper visualization of the wound, aiding in prompt assessment and intervention to control the bleeding and stabilize the client's condition. Placing the client in a 45-degree Trendelenburg position (Choice A) could worsen the bleeding by increasing intrathoracic pressure and venous return, potentially leading to further hemorrhage. Turning the client prone (Choice B) may not be feasible in this situation and can delay essential interventions. Placing the client on the right side (Choice D) does not address the immediate need to manage the bleeding and stabilize the client's condition.

5. The LPN/LVN is assisting in the care of a client with a diagnosis of heart failure who is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin). Which laboratory result should the nurse monitor closely?

• A. Serum sodium
• B. Serum potassium
• C. Serum calcium
• D. Serum glucose

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is serum potassium. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial when a client is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin) because low potassium levels can increase the risk of digoxin toxicity. Digoxin and low potassium levels can lead to serious cardiac complications, such as arrhythmias. Therefore, close monitoring of serum potassium is essential to prevent adverse effects and ensure the safe administration of digoxin in clients with heart failure. Serum sodium, serum calcium, and serum glucose levels are also important laboratory values to monitor in clients with heart failure, but they are not directly associated with the risk of digoxin toxicity. Monitoring these values helps in assessing overall health status, fluid balance, and metabolic functions in the client.

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