ATI LPN
LPN Pharmacology Practice Test
1. A healthcare professional is reviewing laboratory results for a client with rheumatoid arthritis prescribed methotrexate. Which of the following laboratory results should the healthcare professional report to the provider?
- A. WBC count 1,200/mm³
- B. Hemoglobin 14 g/dL
- C. Platelets 150,000/mm³
- D. Blood glucose 110 mg/dL
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A WBC count of 1,200/mm³ indicates leukopenia, a serious side effect of methotrexate that can lead to increased risk of infections. It is crucial to report this finding promptly to the provider for further evaluation and possible adjustments in the treatment plan. Choices B, C, and D are within normal ranges and do not represent significant concerns related to methotrexate therapy in this context.
2. The LPN/LVN is reinforcing discharge instructions to a client who has been prescribed nitroglycerin sublingual tablets for angina. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I will keep my nitroglycerin tablets in the original glass bottle.
- B. I will sit or lie down when I take a nitroglycerin tablet.
- C. I will take a nitroglycerin tablet every 5 minutes if chest pain persists, up to a total of 3 tablets.
- D. I can swallow the nitroglycerin tablet with a glass of water if it does not dissolve quickly.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Nitroglycerin sublingual tablets should not be swallowed; they must dissolve under the tongue to be effective. Choice A is correct as nitroglycerin tablets should be stored in their original glass container to prevent degradation. Choice B is correct as sitting or lying down when taking a nitroglycerin tablet helps prevent dizziness or fainting due to a sudden drop in blood pressure. Choice C is correct as taking a nitroglycerin tablet every 5 minutes for a maximum of 3 tablets is the correct protocol for managing angina symptoms.
3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer ceftriaxone 1 g IM to a client who has a pelvic infection. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional plan to take?
- A. Administer the medication via IM bolus over 5 minutes.
- B. Reconstitute with 0.9% sodium chloride.
- C. Discard the reconstituted medication if it is cloudy.
- D. Administer the medication in a large muscle.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Administering ceftriaxone in a large muscle is crucial for proper absorption and to reduce the risk of pain or tissue irritation. Intramuscular administration of ceftriaxone helps achieve optimal therapeutic levels in the bloodstream for the treatment of the pelvic infection. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A is not recommended as ceftriaxone should not be administered as a bolus over 5 minutes. Choice B is irrelevant because the question is about the administration route, not the reconstitution process. Choice C is also irrelevant as it does not pertain to the administration but to the quality of the reconstituted medication.
4. A healthcare professional is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for enoxaparin. Which of the following instructions should the healthcare professional include?
- A. Administer the injection into the abdomen.
- B. Avoid massaging the injection site after administration.
- C. Expect mild bruising at the injection site.
- D. Avoid alternating injection sites between the arms.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering enoxaparin into the abdomen is recommended to ensure proper absorption and effectiveness. Massaging the injection site after administration should be avoided as it can increase the risk of bleeding or bruising. Mild bruising at the injection site is common with enoxaparin and should be expected. Alternating injection sites, especially between arms, is not suitable for enoxaparin administration. Consistent administration into the abdomen is preferred for consistent absorption of the medication.
5. Why should the client diagnosed with rheumatic heart disease be advised to notify the dentist before dental procedures?
- A. The client requires prophylactic antibiotics before treatment.
- B. The client may experience dysrhythmias with high-speed drills.
- C. The client may have an adverse reaction to lidocaine with epinephrine.
- D. The client may develop heart failure during stressful events.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Clients with rheumatic heart disease are at risk for infective endocarditis, a serious infection of the heart lining or valves. They need prophylactic antibiotics before invasive procedures, including dental work, to prevent this life-threatening complication. While dysrhythmias with high-speed drills, adverse reactions to local anesthesia, and the risk of heart failure during stressful events are all concerns for clients with heart conditions, the primary reason for notifying the dentist before dental procedures in rheumatic heart disease is the need for prophylactic antibiotics to prevent infective endocarditis.
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