Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for isoniazid. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
• B. Avoid drinking alcohol.
• C. Take the medication with an antacid.
• D. Increase your intake of leafy green vegetables.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to avoid drinking alcohol. Isoniazid can cause liver damage, and alcohol consumption can increase this risk. Therefore, it is crucial to avoid alcohol while taking isoniazid to prevent potential liver complications. Choice A is incorrect because isoniazid is typically taken with food to reduce gastrointestinal upset. Choice C is incorrect because antacids can decrease the absorption of isoniazid. Choice D is incorrect as there is no specific recommendation to increase leafy green vegetable intake when taking isoniazid.

2. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a unit of packed red blood cells to a client. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

• A. Prime the blood tubing with normal saline.
• B. Verify the client’s identity using two identifiers.
• C. Infuse the blood rapidly over 30 minutes.
• D. Obtain the client’s vital signs every 4 hours during the transfusion.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Verifying the client’s identity using two identifiers is a critical patient safety measure to ensure the correct patient receives the blood transfusion. This process involves checking the patient's identity using at least two unique identifiers, such as name, date of birth, or medical record number, to prevent administration errors. Priming the blood tubing with normal saline is necessary to ensure there are no air bubbles in the tubing, but it is not the immediate action required before administering the blood. Infusing packed red blood cells over 30 minutes is generally too rapid and can lead to adverse reactions; a slower rate is recommended for safe administration. Obtaining vital signs every 4 hours during the transfusion is not frequent enough to monitor the client adequately for potential transfusion reactions or complications; vital signs should be monitored more frequently, especially during the initial phase of the transfusion.

3. An 81-year-old male client has emphysema. He lives at home with his cat and manages self-care with no difficulty. When making a home visit, the nurse notices that this client's tongue is somewhat cracked, and his eyeballs appear sunken into his head. Which nursing intervention is indicated?

• A. Help the client determine ways to increase his fluid intake.
• B. Obtain an appointment for the client to have an eye examination.
• C. Instruct the client to use oxygen at night and increase humidification.
• D. Schedule the client for tests to determine his sensitivity to cat hair.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The client's cracked tongue and sunken eyes indicate dehydration. Therefore, the priority nursing intervention is to help the client determine ways to increase his fluid intake. Dehydration can exacerbate the client's emphysema symptoms and lead to further complications. Monitoring and addressing the client's fluid intake is crucial for maintaining his health and well-being. Options B, C, and D are not the immediate priorities in this situation. While an eye examination, oxygen use, and sensitivity tests are relevant aspects of care, addressing dehydration through increased fluid intake takes precedence in this scenario.

4. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to assess the effectiveness of the medication?

• A. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• B. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
• C. Platelet count
• D. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) are the laboratory values used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. These values help ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range for anticoagulation. PT measures the time it takes for blood to clot, while INR standardizes PT results to minimize variations between laboratories. Monitoring these values is crucial to prevent complications such as bleeding or clot formation. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) (Choice A) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy. Platelet count (Choice C) assesses the number of platelets in the blood and is not specific to warfarin therapy. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) (Choice D) is a non-specific marker of inflammation and is not used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy.

5. A healthcare provider is providing discharge instructions to a client who has a new prescription for digoxin. Which of the following instructions should the healthcare provider include?

• A. Take the medication at bedtime.
• B. Avoid taking antacids with this medication.
• C. Monitor your pulse rate daily.
• D. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Monitor your pulse rate daily.' Monitoring the pulse rate daily is crucial when taking digoxin as it helps in early detection of digoxin toxicity. Digoxin can cause toxicity, which may manifest as changes in the heart rate, making monitoring the pulse rate an essential part of managing the medication. It is important for the client to be aware of their normal pulse rate and report any significant changes to their healthcare provider promptly. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Taking digoxin at bedtime is not a specific instruction related to monitoring its effects. Avoiding antacids is relevant for some medications, but not a key concern with digoxin. Increasing potassium-rich foods may interact with digoxin due to its effect on potassium levels, but monitoring the pulse rate is a more direct and immediate need for safety.

Similar Questions