Nursing Elites

1. Albert, a 35-year-old insulin-dependent diabetic, is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of pneumonia. He has been febrile since admission. His daily insulin requirement is 24 units of NPH. Every morning Albert is given NPH insulin at 0730. Meals are served at 0830, 1230, and 1830. The nurse expects that the NPH insulin will reach its maximum effect (peak) between the hours of:

• A. 1130 and 1330.
• B. 1330 and 1930.
• C. 1530 and 2130.
• D. 1730 and 2330.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: NPH insulin typically peaks 4-12 hours after administration, so a peak between 1530 and 2130 would be expected. Choice A (1130 and 1330) is too early for the peak effect of NPH insulin. Choice B (1330 and 1930) falls within the possible peak period but is not as accurate as choice C. Choice D (1730 and 2330) is too late for the peak effect of NPH insulin based on the typical peak timing.

2. The nurse is providing dietary instructions to a client with DM. The nurse instructs the client to include which item in the diet?

• A. High-fat foods
• B. Low-carbohydrate foods
• C. High-protein foods
• D. High-fiber foods

Correct answer: D

Rationale: High-fiber foods are beneficial for clients with diabetes because they help regulate blood glucose levels by slowing down the absorption of sugar. Additionally, high-fiber foods aid in maintaining satiety, supporting weight management, and preventing constipation. High-fat foods (choice A) are not recommended for clients with diabetes due to their potential negative impact on heart health and weight. While low-carbohydrate foods (choice B) can be part of a diabetes-friendly diet, high-fiber foods are more specifically beneficial for managing blood sugar levels. High-protein foods (choice C) can be included in moderation in a diabetic diet, but they are not the primary focus when it comes to improving glycemic control.

3. A female client with a history of pheochromocytoma is admitted to the hospital in an acute hypertensive crisis. To reverse the hypertensive crisis caused by pheochromocytoma, nurse Lyka expects to administer:

• A. Phentolamine (Regitine)
• B. Methyldopa (Aldomet)
• C. Mannitol (Osmitrol)
• D. Felodipine (Plendil)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a hypertensive crisis due to pheochromocytoma, the appropriate medication to administer is Phentolamine (Regitine), an alpha-adrenergic blocker. Phentolamine acts quickly to block the effects of excess catecholamines that are released in pheochromocytoma, helping to rapidly lower blood pressure. Methyldopa (Aldomet) is an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist used for chronic hypertension, not for acute crises like pheochromocytoma. Mannitol (Osmitrol) is an osmotic diuretic used to reduce intracranial pressure and treat cerebral edema, not indicated for hypertensive crises. Felodipine (Plendil) is a calcium channel blocker used for chronic management of hypertension, not for acute hypertensive crises like those seen in pheochromocytoma.

4. The client has received IV solutions for three (3) days through a 20-gauge IV catheter placed in the left cephalic vein. On morning rounds, the nurse notes the IV site is tender to palpation and a red streak has formed. Which action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Start a new IV in the right hand.
• B. Discontinue the intravenous line.
• C. Complete an incident record.
• D. Place a warm washcloth over the site.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The first action should be to discontinue the intravenous line to prevent further complications such as infection or thrombophlebitis. Starting a new IV in the right hand is not the priority as addressing the current issue is important. Completing an incident record can be done after addressing the immediate concern of the IV site. Placing a warm washcloth over the site does not address the red streak and tenderness, which may indicate an infection that requires discontinuation of the IV line.

5. A client with DM demonstrates acute anxiety when first admitted for the treatment of hyperglycemia. The most appropriate intervention to decrease the client's anxiety would be to:

• A. Administer a sedative
• B. Make sure the client knows all the correct medical terms to understand what is happening.
• C. Ignore the signs and symptoms of anxiety so that they will soon disappear.
• D. Convey empathy, trust, and respect toward the client.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Conveying empathy, trust, and respect can help reduce the client's anxiety and improve their overall experience during treatment. This approach creates a supportive environment and fosters a sense of safety and understanding for the client. Administering a sedative (Choice A) should not be the initial intervention for anxiety, as it does not address the underlying emotional needs of the client. Making sure the client knows all the correct medical terms (Choice B) may increase anxiety by overwhelming the client with technical information. Ignoring signs and symptoms of anxiety (Choice C) can lead to worsening distress and potential complications in the client's care.

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