ATI LPN
Medical Surgical ATI Proctored Exam
1. A client with a history of chronic alcohol abuse is at risk for which of the following conditions?
- A. Liver cirrhosis
- B. Renal failure
- C. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
- D. Peptic ulcer disease
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Chronic alcohol abuse can lead to liver cirrhosis due to long-term liver damage. Alcohol consumption over time can cause inflammation and scarring of the liver, eventually leading to cirrhosis. This condition can severely impact liver function and may progress to liver failure if not addressed.
2. The client is receiving heparin therapy for deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which lab test should be monitored to evaluate the effectiveness of heparin?
- A. Prothrombin time (PT)
- B. International normalized ratio (INR)
- C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
- D. Fibrinogen levels
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the appropriate lab test to monitor the therapeutic effectiveness of heparin therapy. Heparin affects the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, and monitoring aPTT helps ensure the client is within the therapeutic range to prevent clot formation. Prothrombin time (PT) and International normalized ratio (INR) are used to monitor warfarin therapy, a different anticoagulant that affects the extrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade. Fibrinogen levels are not specific to monitoring heparin therapy.
3. Which level of health facility is the usual point of entry for a client into the healthcare delivery system?
- A. Primary
- B. Secondary
- C. Intermediate
- D. Tertiary
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The primary level of health facility is the usual point of entry for a client into the healthcare delivery system. This level typically involves initial consultations, preventive care, and basic treatment services. Clients often start their healthcare journey at the primary level before being referred to higher levels of care if needed.
4. A client who had a vaginal delivery 4 hours ago has a fourth-degree perineal laceration. Which of the following interventions should the nurse recommend?
- A. Encourage ambulation
- B. Apply ice packs
- C. Restrict the client's fluid intake
- D. Administer stool softeners
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: Applying ice packs is the most appropriate intervention for a client with a fourth-degree perineal laceration. Ice packs help reduce swelling and promote comfort, aiding in the healing process. Choice A, encouraging ambulation, may not be suitable immediately after a fourth-degree laceration due to the need for rest and proper wound care. Choice C, restricting fluid intake, is not indicated and can lead to dehydration, which is not beneficial for wound healing. Choice D, administering stool softeners, may be necessary to prevent constipation and straining, but it is not the priority intervention at this time.
5. What is the muscle layer on the outside of the intestinal wall called?
- A. serosa
- B. mucosa
- C. submucosa
- D. muscularis mucosae
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: serosa. The serosa is the outermost layer of the intestinal wall, providing a protective covering. Choice B, mucosa, is the innermost layer responsible for absorption. Choice C, submucosa, lies beneath the mucosa and contains blood vessels and nerves. Choice D, muscularis mucosae, is a smooth muscle layer located within the mucosa, helping to create folds in the intestinal lining to increase surface area for absorption.
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