ATI LPN
ATI PN Adult Medical Surgical 2019
1. When assessing a client with suspected meningitis, which finding is indicative of meningeal irritation?
- A. Brudzinski's sign
- B. Positive Babinski reflex
- C. Kernig's sign
- D. Both A and C
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Both Brudzinski's sign and Kernig's sign are classic signs of meningeal irritation, commonly associated with meningitis. Brudzinski's sign is positive when flexing the neck causes involuntary flexion of the hips and knees due to irritation of the meninges. Kernig's sign is positive when there is pain and resistance with knee extension after hip flexion, indicating meningeal irritation or inflammation. The Babinski reflex, mentioned in choice B, is a test used to assess upper motor neuron damage and is not specific to meningitis. Therefore, choices A and C are the correct options as they are indicative of meningeal irritation in a suspected case of meningitis.
2. A client with chronic renal failure is prescribed epoetin alfa (Epogen). Which outcome indicates that the medication is effective?
- A. Increased urine output.
- B. Decreased blood pressure.
- C. Improved hemoglobin levels.
- D. Stable potassium levels.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Epoetin alfa is a medication that stimulates red blood cell production. Therefore, in a client with chronic renal failure, an effective outcome of epoetin alfa therapy would be an improvement in hemoglobin levels. This indicates that the medication is working as intended by addressing anemia, a common complication of chronic renal failure. Increased urine output (choice A) is not directly related to the action of epoetin alfa. Decreased blood pressure (choice B) is not a primary expected outcome of epoetin alfa therapy. Stable potassium levels (choice D) are important but not a direct indicator of the effectiveness of epoetin alfa in this context.
3. A client with a newly created ileostomy has not had ostomy output for the past 12 hours and reports worsening nausea. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Facilitate a referral to the wound-ostomy-continence (WOC) nurse
- B. Report signs and symptoms of obstruction to the health care provider
- C. Encourage the client to mobilize to enhance mobility
- D. Contact the health care provider to obtain a swab of the stoma for culture
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The nurse's priority action in this situation is to report signs and symptoms of possible obstruction to the healthcare provider. Lack of ostomy output and worsening nausea can indicate a potential obstruction, which requires immediate attention and intervention to prevent complications.
4. A client with myelogenous leukemia is receiving an autologous bone marrow transplantation (BMT). What is the priority intervention that the nurse should implement when the bone marrow is repopulating?
- A. Administer sargramostim (Leukine, Prokine).
- B. Infuse PRBC and platelet transfusions.
- C. Give parenteral prophylactic antibiotics.
- D. Maintain a protective isolation environment.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Maintaining a protective isolation environment is crucial during the repopulation of bone marrow post-transplant to reduce the risk of infections. The client's immune system is compromised during this period, making them highly susceptible to infections. By implementing protective isolation measures, the nurse can help prevent exposure to pathogens, safeguarding the client's health and supporting the success of the transplantation.
5. A 60-year-old man presents with fatigue, polyuria, and polydipsia. Laboratory tests reveal hyperglycemia and ketonuria. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Type 1 diabetes mellitus
- B. Type 2 diabetes mellitus
- C. Diabetes insipidus
- D. Hyperthyroidism
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The presentation of a 60-year-old man with fatigue, polyuria, polydipsia, hyperglycemia, and ketonuria strongly suggests type 1 diabetes mellitus. Type 1 diabetes typically presents with acute symptoms due to absolute insulin deficiency, leading to hyperglycemia and ketonuria. Conversely, type 2 diabetes often presents more insidiously and is associated with relative insulin deficiency and insulin resistance. Diabetes insipidus, a condition characterized by excessive thirst and excretion of large amounts of dilute urine, is due to problems with antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and is not associated with hyperglycemia or ketonuria. Hyperthyroidism, while also presenting with symptoms like fatigue, does not typically manifest with hyperglycemia or ketonuria. Therefore, based on the clinical presentation and laboratory findings, the most likely diagnosis in this case is type 1 diabetes mellitus.
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