Nursing Elites

1. When assessing a client with suspected meningitis, which finding is indicative of meningeal irritation?

• A. Brudzinski's sign
• B. Positive Babinski reflex
• C. Kernig's sign
• D. Both A and C

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Both Brudzinski's sign and Kernig's sign are classic signs of meningeal irritation, commonly associated with meningitis. Brudzinski's sign is positive when flexing the neck causes involuntary flexion of the hips and knees due to irritation of the meninges. Kernig's sign is positive when there is pain and resistance with knee extension after hip flexion, indicating meningeal irritation or inflammation. The Babinski reflex, mentioned in choice B, is a test used to assess upper motor neuron damage and is not specific to meningitis. Therefore, choices A and C are the correct options as they are indicative of meningeal irritation in a suspected case of meningitis.

2. A client with a history of asthma is prescribed salmeterol (Serevent). Which instruction should the nurse provide?

• A. Use this medication for acute asthma attacks.
• B. Use this medication before using your albuterol inhaler.
• C. Use this medication twice daily for long-term control.
• D. Use this medication as needed for wheezing.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed salmeterol (Serevent) is to use it twice daily for long-term control. Salmeterol is a long-acting bronchodilator that is not intended for acute asthma attacks or as-needed use for wheezing. Choice A is incorrect because salmeterol is not used for acute asthma attacks. Choice B is incorrect as salmeterol is not meant to replace the albuterol inhaler but rather used for long-term control. Choice D is incorrect because salmeterol should not be used as needed; it is a maintenance medication for asthma.

3. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is admitted with hyperglycemia. Which laboratory result requires the most immediate intervention?

• A. Serum glucose of 350 mg/dL.
• B. Serum potassium of 2.8 mEq/L.
• C. Serum sodium of 136 mEq/L.
• D. Serum bicarbonate of 20 mEq/L.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A serum potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L is critically low and can cause cardiac arrhythmias, requiring immediate intervention. Hypokalemia is a life-threatening condition that needs prompt correction to prevent serious complications. High serum glucose levels (choice A) are a concern in diabetes but do not pose an immediate life-threatening risk compared to severe hypokalemia. Serum sodium (choice C) and serum bicarbonate levels (choice D) are within normal ranges and do not require immediate intervention.

4. A client with a history of myocardial infarction (MI) is prescribed nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) for chest pain. Which instruction should the nurse provide?

• A. Take the medication with food.
• B. Swallow the tablet whole.
• C. Take the medication at bedtime.
• D. Place the tablet under your tongue.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) for chest pain is to place the tablet under the tongue. This route allows for rapid absorption of the medication, providing quick relief for chest pain associated with myocardial infarction.

5. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed lisinopril (Prinivil). Which side effect should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Dry cough.
• B. Weight gain.
• C. Tachycardia.
• D. Hyperglycemia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dry cough. Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor, and a common side effect of ACE inhibitors is a dry cough. This occurs due to the accumulation of bradykinin in the lungs, leading to irritation and subsequent cough. It is important for the nurse to monitor the client for this side effect as it can affect adherence to the medication regimen. Weight gain, tachycardia, and hyperglycemia are not typically associated with lisinopril. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect.

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