Nursing Elites

1. When assessing a client with suspected meningitis, which finding is indicative of meningeal irritation?

• A. Brudzinski's sign
• B. Positive Babinski reflex
• C. Kernig's sign
• D. Both A and C

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Both Brudzinski's sign and Kernig's sign are classic signs of meningeal irritation, commonly associated with meningitis. Brudzinski's sign is positive when flexing the neck causes involuntary flexion of the hips and knees due to irritation of the meninges. Kernig's sign is positive when there is pain and resistance with knee extension after hip flexion, indicating meningeal irritation or inflammation. The Babinski reflex, mentioned in choice B, is a test used to assess upper motor neuron damage and is not specific to meningitis. Therefore, choices A and C are the correct options as they are indicative of meningeal irritation in a suspected case of meningitis.

2. A patient with chronic pain is prescribed gabapentin. What is the primary purpose of this medication?

• A. Relieve neuropathic pain
• B. Reduce inflammation
• C. Enhance opioid analgesia
• D. Suppress cough

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Gabapentin is primarily prescribed to relieve neuropathic pain. It works by stabilizing electrical activity in the nerves, making it effective in managing conditions such as diabetic neuropathy, postherpetic neuralgia, and other forms of chronic pain originating from nerve damage.

3. A client with hepatic encephalopathy is being treated with lactulose. What is an expected outcome of this treatment?

• A. Reduction in blood ammonia levels
• B. Improvement in liver enzyme levels
• C. Decrease in bilirubin levels
• D. Increase in urine output

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lactulose is used to treat hepatic encephalopathy by reducing blood ammonia levels through promoting its excretion via the intestines. Elevated ammonia levels contribute to the development of encephalopathy symptoms, so by lowering them, the client's neurological status can improve.

4. A 60-year-old woman presents with fatigue, pruritus, and jaundice. Laboratory tests reveal elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Hepatitis C
• B. Primary biliary cirrhosis
• C. Hemochromatosis
• D. Wilson's disease

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The symptoms of fatigue, pruritus, jaundice, and elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase levels are classic features of primary biliary cirrhosis, an autoimmune liver disease. Hepatitis C typically presents with different symptoms and findings, such as specific viral markers. Hemochromatosis and Wilson's disease involve iron overload and copper accumulation, respectively, leading to distinct clinical and laboratory findings, which do not match the presentation described in this case.

5. A client with a history of myocardial infarction (MI) is prescribed atorvastatin (Lipitor). Which outcome indicates that the medication is effective?

• A. Increased blood pressure.
• B. Lowered cholesterol levels.
• C. Decreased heart rate.
• D. Improved liver function.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Lowered cholesterol levels. Atorvastatin is a medication commonly prescribed to lower cholesterol levels, which is crucial in reducing the risk of further cardiovascular events, including myocardial infarction (MI). Monitoring cholesterol levels is essential to assess the effectiveness of atorvastatin therapy and its role in preventing future cardiac complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because increased blood pressure, decreased heart rate, and improved liver function are not direct indicators of atorvastatin's effectiveness in a client with a history of MI.

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