Nursing Elites

1. When assessing a client with suspected meningitis, which finding is indicative of meningeal irritation?

• A. Brudzinski's sign
• B. Positive Babinski reflex
• C. Kernig's sign
• D. Both A and C

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Both Brudzinski's sign and Kernig's sign are classic signs of meningeal irritation, commonly associated with meningitis. Brudzinski's sign is positive when flexing the neck causes involuntary flexion of the hips and knees due to irritation of the meninges. Kernig's sign is positive when there is pain and resistance with knee extension after hip flexion, indicating meningeal irritation or inflammation. The Babinski reflex, mentioned in choice B, is a test used to assess upper motor neuron damage and is not specific to meningitis. Therefore, choices A and C are the correct options as they are indicative of meningeal irritation in a suspected case of meningitis.

2. A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed tiotropium. What is the primary purpose of this medication?

• A. Reduce mucus production
• B. Relieve bronchospasm
• C. Suppress cough
• D. Thin respiratory secretions

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Tiotropium is a long-acting bronchodilator used to relieve bronchospasm and improve airflow in patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). It works by relaxing the muscles around the airways, leading to bronchodilation and improved breathing, making it an essential treatment in managing COPD symptoms.

3. A client with chronic renal failure is prescribed epoetin alfa (Epogen). Which outcome indicates that the medication is effective?

• A. Increased urine output.
• B. Decreased blood pressure.
• C. Improved hemoglobin levels.
• D. Stable potassium levels.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Epoetin alfa is a medication that stimulates red blood cell production. Therefore, in a client with chronic renal failure, an effective outcome of epoetin alfa therapy would be an improvement in hemoglobin levels. This indicates that the medication is working as intended by addressing anemia, a common complication of chronic renal failure. Increased urine output (choice A) is not directly related to the action of epoetin alfa. Decreased blood pressure (choice B) is not a primary expected outcome of epoetin alfa therapy. Stable potassium levels (choice D) are important but not a direct indicator of the effectiveness of epoetin alfa in this context.

4. Prior to elective surgery, a patient taking warfarin should receive which instruction regarding warfarin therapy?

• A. Continue taking warfarin until the day of surgery.
• B. Stop taking warfarin three days before surgery.
• C. Switch to aspirin before surgery.
• D. Stop taking warfarin one week before surgery.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Prior to elective surgery, a patient taking warfarin should be instructed to stop taking warfarin around one week before the procedure. This timeframe allows for the effects of warfarin to diminish, lowering the risk of excessive bleeding during surgery. Continuing warfarin until the day of surgery (Choice A) increases the risk of bleeding complications. Stopping warfarin three days before surgery (Choice B) may not provide enough time for the anticoagulant effects to subside. Switching to aspirin before surgery (Choice C) is not recommended as a substitute for warfarin in this context.

5. A patient with bipolar disorder is prescribed valproic acid. What is an important side effect for the nurse to monitor?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Liver toxicity
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Liver toxicity. Valproic acid is known to potentially cause liver toxicity. Monitoring liver function tests regularly in patients taking valproic acid is crucial to detect any signs of liver damage early and prevent serious complications.

Similar Questions