the nurse is assessing a client with suspected meningitis which finding is indicative of meningeal irritation
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

ATI PN Adult Medical Surgical 2019

1. When assessing a client with suspected meningitis, which finding is indicative of meningeal irritation?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Both Brudzinski's sign and Kernig's sign are classic signs of meningeal irritation, commonly associated with meningitis. Brudzinski's sign is positive when flexing the neck causes involuntary flexion of the hips and knees due to irritation of the meninges. Kernig's sign is positive when there is pain and resistance with knee extension after hip flexion, indicating meningeal irritation or inflammation. The Babinski reflex, mentioned in choice B, is a test used to assess upper motor neuron damage and is not specific to meningitis. Therefore, choices A and C are the correct options as they are indicative of meningeal irritation in a suspected case of meningitis.

2. Which of the following statements is true about ischemic colitis?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Ischemic colitis most often results from low-flow states associated with hypotension or poor perfusion. As a result, the vascular watershed areas of the colon, including the splenic flexure, right colon, and rectum, are at highest risk of ischemic injury. Therefore, option B is correct as it accurately identifies the areas commonly affected by ischemic colitis.

3. A 9-year-old female client was recently diagnosed with diabetes mellitus. Which symptom will her parents most likely report?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Increased thirst and fluid intake, such as drinking more soft drinks than previously, is a common symptom of diabetes mellitus in children. This increased thirst is due to the body trying to eliminate excess sugar through urination, leading to dehydration and the need for more fluids. The other choices are less likely to be directly related to the diagnosis of diabetes mellitus in this scenario.

4. The nurse is administering sevelamer (RenaGel) during lunch to a client with end-stage renal disease (ESRD). The client asks the nurse to bring the medication later. The nurse should describe which action of RenaGel as an explanation for taking it with meals?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Sevelamer (RenaGel) binds with phosphorus in foods to prevent its absorption, which is why it should be taken with meals. By taking RenaGel with meals, it can effectively bind with phosphorus from food, reducing the amount of phosphorus absorbed by the body, thus helping to manage hyperphosphatemia in clients with ESRD. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because RenaGel's primary action is to bind with phosphorus in foods, not related to preventing indigestion, promoting stomach emptying, or buffering hydrochloric acid.

5. A client with hypertension is receiving dietary education from a nurse. Which recommendation should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct recommendation for a client with hypertension is to limit sodium intake to less than 2 grams per day. High sodium intake can worsen hypertension by increasing blood pressure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing saturated fats (Choice A) can be detrimental to heart health and exacerbate hypertension. Avoiding foods high in potassium (Choice C) is not recommended as potassium-rich foods can actually be beneficial for managing blood pressure. Consuming three alcoholic beverages daily (Choice D) can also have a negative impact on blood pressure and overall health.

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