ATI LPN
ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam 2019 Quizlet
1. A primipara at 38-weeks gestation is admitted to labor and delivery for a biophysical profile (BPP). The nurse should prepare the client for what procedures?
- A. Chorionic villus sampling under ultrasound.
- B. Amniocentesis and fetal monitoring.
- C. Ultrasonography and nonstress test.
- D. Oxytocin challenge test and fetal heart rate monitoring.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A biophysical profile (BPP) is a prenatal test that assesses the well-being of the fetus. It typically includes ultrasonography to evaluate fetal movements, muscle tone, breathing movements, and amniotic fluid volume. Additionally, a nonstress test is performed to monitor the fetal heart rate in response to its movements. These tests help in determining the overall health and viability of the fetus, making them essential components of prenatal care for assessing fetal well-being.
2. The healthcare provider is providing care to a client with a tracheostomy. Which action should the healthcare provider take to prevent tracheostomy complications?
- A. Use sterile technique when performing tracheostomy care.
- B. Suction the tracheostomy tube every hour.
- C. Keep the tracheostomy tube cuff inflated at all times.
- D. Change the tracheostomy ties daily.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Using sterile technique when performing tracheostomy care is essential to prevent infections and other complications. Proper sterile technique helps reduce the risk of introducing harmful bacteria into the tracheostomy site, which can lead to infections and other serious issues. By maintaining a sterile environment during tracheostomy care, the healthcare provider can promote healing and prevent potential complications.
3. The patient described in the preceding question has a positive H. pylori antibody blood test. She is compliant with the medical regimen you prescribe. Although her symptoms initially respond, she returns to see you six months later with the same symptoms. Which of the following statements is correct?
- A. She is at low risk for reinfection with H. pylori
- B. A positive serum IgG indicates that eradication of H. pylori was successful
- C. The urease breath test is an ideal test to document failure of eradication
- D. Dyspepsia typically worsens with H. pylori eradication
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Reinfection with H. pylori is rare, and the persistence of infection usually indicates poor compliance with the medical regimen or antibiotic resistance. The serum IgG may remain positive indefinitely and cannot be used to determine failure of eradication; however, a decrease in quantitative IgG levels has been utilized to indicate treatment success. If available, either the stool antigen or urease breath test is ideal to document treatment failure due to their high sensitivity, specificity, and ease of performance. The relationship between dyspepsia and H. pylori is controversial, but generally, dyspepsia does not typically improve with H. pylori eradication.
4. The healthcare provider formulates a nursing diagnosis of 'High risk for ineffective airway clearance' for a client with myasthenia gravis. What is the most likely cause for this nursing diagnosis?
- A. Pain during coughing.
- B. Diminished cough effort.
- C. Thick, dry secretions.
- D. Excessive inflammation.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Clients with myasthenia gravis commonly experience muscle weakness, including in the muscles used for coughing. This diminished cough effort can lead to ineffective airway clearance, increasing the risk of respiratory complications. Therefore, the most likely cause for the nursing diagnosis 'High risk for ineffective airway clearance' in a client with myasthenia gravis is the diminished cough effort due to muscle weakness.
5. A patient with asthma is prescribed a corticosteroid inhaler. What is the most important instruction to give to the patient?
- A. Use the inhaler only during asthma attacks.
- B. Rinse the mouth after using the inhaler.
- C. Take a double dose if symptoms worsen.
- D. Avoid using a spacer with the inhaler.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most important instruction to give to a patient using a corticosteroid inhaler is to rinse the mouth after each use. This is crucial to prevent the development of oral thrush, a common side effect of corticosteroid inhalers. Failure to rinse the mouth can lead to the overgrowth of yeast in the mouth, causing oral thrush, which can be uncomfortable and require additional treatment. Therefore, reminding patients to rinse their mouth after using the inhaler is essential in preventing this potential complication. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Using the inhaler only during asthma attacks may lead to uncontrolled asthma symptoms. Taking a double dose without healthcare provider instruction can result in overdose or side effects. Avoiding a spacer with the inhaler can reduce the effectiveness of delivering the medication to the lungs.
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