a client with peptic ulcer disease is prescribed omeprazole prilosec which instruction should the nurse include in the clients teaching plan
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ATI PN Adult Medical Surgical 2019

1. A client with peptic ulcer disease is prescribed omeprazole (Prilosec). Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed omeprazole (Prilosec) is to take the medication on an empty stomach. This is important for optimal absorption and effectiveness of the medication in treating peptic ulcer disease. Choice A ('Take the medication with food') is incorrect because omeprazole should be taken on an empty stomach. Choice B ('Take the medication at bedtime') is incorrect as it does not align with the optimal timing for omeprazole administration. Choice D ('Take the medication as needed for pain relief') is incorrect because omeprazole is not typically used for immediate pain relief but rather for long-term management of peptic ulcer disease.

2. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value indicates a therapeutic effect of the medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An INR (International Normalized Ratio) of 2.5 indicates a therapeutic level for clients receiving warfarin (Coumadin) to prevent thromboembolism. It is essential to monitor INR levels regularly when on warfarin therapy to ensure that the blood's ability to clot is within the desired range to prevent both clotting and excessive bleeding.

3. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of the medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) are essential laboratory tests to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin (Coumadin) therapy. These tests help assess the clotting time and the desired anticoagulant effect of the medication. Monitoring PT and INR levels is crucial to ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range, reducing the risk of bleeding or clotting complications associated with warfarin therapy. Platelet count (Choice A) measures the number of platelets in the blood and is not specific for monitoring warfarin therapy. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) (Choice C) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin. Fibrinogen level (Choice D) assesses the amount of fibrinogen in the blood and is not a specific test for monitoring warfarin therapy.

4. A patient with rheumatoid arthritis is taking prednisone. What is an important side effect for the nurse to monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is hyperglycemia. Prednisone, a corticosteroid, can lead to elevated blood sugar levels as a side effect, particularly in patients with diabetes or those predisposed to developing diabetes. Monitoring for hyperglycemia is crucial to prevent complications like diabetic ketoacidosis and hyperglycemic hyperosmolar syndrome.

5. During an admission physical assessment, the nurse is examining a newborn who is small for gestational age (SGA). Which finding should the nurse report immediately to the pediatric healthcare provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A widened, tense, bulging fontanel is a critical finding in a newborn as it can indicate increased intracranial pressure. This condition requires immediate attention and intervention to prevent further complications. Monitoring fontanel status is crucial in assessing the newborn's neurological well-being and ensuring early detection of potential issues.

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