Nursing Elites

1. A client with peptic ulcer disease is prescribed omeprazole (Prilosec). Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?

• A. Take the medication with food.
• B. Take the medication at bedtime.
• C. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
• D. Take the medication as needed for pain relief.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed omeprazole (Prilosec) is to take the medication on an empty stomach. This is important for optimal absorption and effectiveness of the medication in treating peptic ulcer disease. Choice A ('Take the medication with food') is incorrect because omeprazole should be taken on an empty stomach. Choice B ('Take the medication at bedtime') is incorrect as it does not align with the optimal timing for omeprazole administration. Choice D ('Take the medication as needed for pain relief') is incorrect because omeprazole is not typically used for immediate pain relief but rather for long-term management of peptic ulcer disease.

2. A 60-year-old male client is admitted to the hospital with the complaint of right knee pain for the past week. His right knee and calf are warm and edematous. He has a history of diabetes and arthritis. Which neurological assessment action should the nurse perform for this client?

• A. Glasgow Coma Scale
• B. Assess pulses, paresthesia, and paralysis distal to the right knee
• C. Assess pulses, paresthesia, and paralysis proximal to the right knee
• D. Optic nerve using an ophthalmoscope

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should assess pulses, paresthesia, and paralysis distal to the right knee to evaluate for neurovascular compromise. This assessment helps determine the perfusion and sensation of the lower extremity, which is crucial in identifying potential vascular or nerve damage that may be causing the client's symptoms.

3. The nurse is caring for four clients: Client A, who has emphysema and an oxygen saturation of 94%; Client B, with a postoperative hemoglobin of 8.7 g/dL; Client C, newly admitted with a potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L; and Client D, scheduled for an appendectomy with a white blood cell count of 15,000/mm3. What intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Increase Client A's oxygen to 4 liters per minute via nasal cannula.
• B. Determine if Client B has two units of packed cells available in the blood bank.
• C. Ask the dietitian to add a banana to Client C's breakfast tray.
• D. Inform Client D that surgery is likely to be delayed until the infection is treated.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A high white blood cell count, as seen in Client D, indicates infection, which may require postponing surgery to treat the infection adequately. It is crucial to address the underlying infection before proceeding with the appendectomy to prevent complications and ensure a successful surgical outcome.

4. A client admitted with acute diverticulitis has experienced a sudden increase in temperature and reports a sudden onset of exquisite abdominal tenderness. The nurse's rapid assessment reveals that the client's abdomen is uncharacteristically rigid on palpation. What is the nurse's best response?

• A. Administer a Fleet enema as prescribed and remain with the client
• B. Contact the primary care provider promptly and report these signs of perforation
• C. Position the client supine and insert an NG tube
• D. Page the primary provider and report that the client may be obstructed

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with acute diverticulitis experiencing sudden increase in temperature, exquisite abdominal tenderness, and uncharacteristic abdominal rigidity, these signs suggest a possible perforation. The nurse should promptly contact the primary care provider to report these signs, as perforation requires immediate medical attention to prevent further complications.

5. A 35-year-old male patient presents with right upper quadrant pain, fever for the past 48 hours, preceded by new onset jaundice over the past few weeks. He states that he has had diarrhea on and off for several years but never had this investigated. A liver ultrasound is negative for gallstones or evidence of cholecystitis. His lab tests reveal total bilirubin 6.2, alkaline phosphatase 450, AST 150, ALT 120, albumin 2.6. The next diagnostic test of choice would be

• A. Liver biopsy
• B. Magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography
• C. Hepatitis B surface antigen and hepatitis C RNA assay
• D. Colonoscopy with biopsies

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The patient's presentation with right upper quadrant pain, fever, and jaundice, along with abnormal liver function tests, suggests a biliary tract problem. Given the suspicion of obstructed bile flow and the negative liver ultrasound for gallstones, magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography (MRCP) is the next appropriate step to evaluate the biliary system and pancreatic ducts. MRCP is non-invasive and can provide detailed images for diagnosis. Liver biopsy is not the preferred initial diagnostic test in this context. Testing for hepatitis B and C would not address the current clinical scenario, and colonoscopy is not indicated for the presenting symptoms.

Similar Questions