Nursing Elites

1. An outcome for treatment of peripheral vascular disease is, 'The client will have decreased venous congestion.' What client behavior would indicate to the nurse that this outcome has been met?

• A. Avoids prolonged sitting or standing.
• B. Avoids trauma and irritation to skin.
• C. Wears protective shoes.
• D. Quits smoking.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Avoids prolonged sitting or standing.' In clients with peripheral vascular disease, decreased venous congestion is a desired outcome. Avoiding prolonged sitting or standing helps improve venous return and reduces congestion in the lower extremities, contributing to the achievement of this treatment goal.

2. A 45-year-old obese man arrives at a clinic reporting daytime sleepiness, difficulty falling asleep at night, and snoring. The nurse should recognize the manifestations of what health problem?

• A. Adenoiditis
• B. Chronic tonsillitis
• C. Obstructive sleep apnea
• D. Laryngeal cancer

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The symptoms described, including daytime sleepiness, difficulty falling asleep at night, and snoring, are classic signs of obstructive sleep apnea. This condition is commonly seen in obese individuals due to the relaxation of throat muscles during sleep, leading to airway obstruction. Adenoiditis and chronic tonsillitis are less likely as they don't typically present with the same symptoms mentioned.

3. A 70-year-old man presents with weight loss, jaundice, and a palpable mass in the right upper quadrant. Laboratory tests reveal elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Gallstones
• B. Hepatitis
• C. Pancreatic cancer
• D. Primary biliary cirrhosis

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The presentation of a 70-year-old man with weight loss, jaundice, a palpable mass in the right upper quadrant, and elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase levels is highly suggestive of pancreatic cancer. This clinical scenario, known as Courvoisier's sign, points towards a pancreatic malignancy due to biliary obstruction. Gallstones could cause similar symptoms but would typically not present with a palpable mass. Hepatitis usually does not present with a palpable mass and would have different laboratory findings. Primary biliary cirrhosis typically presents differently with chronic cholestasis without the presence of a palpable mass or a pancreatic lesion.

4. A 68-year-old man with a history of diabetes, hypertension, and coronary artery disease (s/p coronary artery bypass graft two years ago) presents to the emergency room with fevers and left-sided abdominal pain. His physical examination reveals a temperature of 101.5°F, pulse 96, and blood pressure of 135/80. His abdomen is soft with moderate left lower quadrant tenderness. There is no rebound or guarding. Bowel sounds are present. A CT scan is done which reveals inflammation around an area of the left colon. The next step in his workup/management should be

• A. Antibiotic therapy with ciprofloxacin and metronidazole
• B. Referral for urgent colonoscopy
• C. Referral to a surgeon for immediate hemicolectomy
• D. Barium enema

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The patient's presentation is consistent with diverticulitis without evidence of perforation or abscess formation on CT scan. During acute infections, procedures like barium enema and colonoscopy should be avoided to prevent the risk of perforation. Urgent surgery is not indicated initially. The appropriate next step is to start antibiotic therapy aimed at gram-negative aerobes and anaerobes, such as ciprofloxacin and metronidazole, which are the initial treatment of choice for diverticulitis.

5. A client is being educated about type 2 diabetes. The educator can confirm that the client understands the primary treatment for type 2 diabetes when the client states what?

• A. I read that a pancreas transplant will provide a cure for my diabetes.
• B. I will take my oral antidiabetic agents when my morning blood sugar is high.
• C. I will make sure to follow the weight loss plan designed by the dietitian.
• D. I will make sure I call the diabetes educator when I have questions about my insulin.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The primary treatment approach for managing type 2 diabetes includes following a weight loss plan. Weight loss can improve insulin sensitivity and glycemic control in individuals with type 2 diabetes. Making dietary changes and maintaining a healthy weight are crucial components of managing this condition.

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