Nursing Elites

1. An outcome for treatment of peripheral vascular disease is, 'The client will have decreased venous congestion.' What client behavior would indicate to the nurse that this outcome has been met?

• A. Avoids prolonged sitting or standing.
• B. Avoids trauma and irritation to skin.
• C. Wears protective shoes.
• D. Quits smoking.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Avoids prolonged sitting or standing.' In clients with peripheral vascular disease, decreased venous congestion is a desired outcome. Avoiding prolonged sitting or standing helps improve venous return and reduces congestion in the lower extremities, contributing to the achievement of this treatment goal.

2. A patient with severe pain is prescribed morphine sulfate. What is the most important side effect for the nurse to monitor?

• A. Diarrhea
• B. Hypertension
• C. Respiratory depression
• D. Increased urine output

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient is prescribed morphine sulfate, the most critical side effect for the nurse to monitor is respiratory depression. Morphine can suppress the respiratory drive, leading to inadequate ventilation and potentially life-threatening consequences. Monitoring the patient's respiratory status closely is essential to promptly identify and manage any signs of respiratory depression.

3. A client with Addison's disease is being treated with fludrocortisone (Florinef). Which electrolyte imbalance should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Hyperkalemia.
• B. Hyponatremia.
• C. Hypernatremia.
• D. Hypocalcemia.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Fludrocortisone, such as Florinef, is a mineralocorticoid that promotes sodium retention and potassium excretion, which can lead to hypernatremia. Therefore, the nurse should closely monitor for hypernatremia when a client with Addison's disease is being treated with fludrocortisone. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is incorrect because fludrocortisone promotes potassium excretion, leading to hypokalemia rather than hyperkalemia. Hyponatremia (Choice B) is incorrect as fludrocortisone promotes sodium retention. Hypocalcemia (Choice D) is unrelated to the action of fludrocortisone.

4. The client is receiving intravenous (IV) morphine for pain control. Which assessment finding requires the most immediate intervention?

• A. Drowsiness.
• B. Itching.
• C. Nausea.
• D. Respiratory rate of 8 breaths per minute.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 8 breaths per minute indicates severe respiratory depression, a life-threatening side effect of opioid therapy. Immediate intervention is crucial to prevent respiratory failure. Monitoring and managing respiratory status are critical in clients receiving opioids to prevent adverse events. Drowsiness, itching, and nausea are common side effects of morphine but are not as immediately life-threatening as severe respiratory depression.

5. The client has a nasogastric (NG) tube and is receiving enteral feedings. What intervention should the nurse implement to prevent complications associated with the NG tube?

• A. Flush the NG tube with water before and after feedings.
• B. Check gastric residual volume every 6 hours.
• C. Keep the head of the bed elevated at 30 degrees.
• D. Replace the NG tube every 24 hours.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Keeping the head of the bed elevated at 30 degrees is crucial in preventing aspiration, a common complication associated with nasogastric (NG) tubes and enteral feedings. This position helps reduce the risk of reflux and aspiration of gastric contents into the lungs, promoting client safety and preventing respiratory complications. Flushing the NG tube with water before and after feedings (Choice A) is not the primary intervention to prevent complications. Checking gastric residual volume every 6 hours (Choice B) is important but not directly related to preventing complications associated with the NG tube. Replacing the NG tube every 24 hours (Choice D) is not a standard practice and is not necessary to prevent complications if the tube is functioning properly.

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