ATI LPN
Medical Surgical ATI Proctored Exam
1. A 45-year-old woman presents with fatigue, pruritus, and jaundice. Laboratory tests reveal elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase levels. Imaging shows a normal common bile duct but dilated intrahepatic bile ducts. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Primary biliary cirrhosis
- B. Primary sclerosing cholangitis
- C. Gallstones
- D. Pancreatic cancer
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Based on the symptoms of fatigue, pruritus, and jaundice, along with elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase levels, and imaging findings of a normal common bile duct but dilated intrahepatic bile ducts, the most likely diagnosis is primary biliary cirrhosis. Primary sclerosing cholangitis presents with different imaging findings, often showing strictures and beading of the bile ducts. Gallstones typically cause obstruction in the biliary system, leading to different symptoms and imaging findings. Pancreatic cancer would present with different clinical features and imaging characteristics.
2. What instructions should the nurse give to a patient with cervical cancer who is planned to receive external-beam radiation to prevent complications from the effects of the radiation?
- A. Test stools for the presence of blood.
- B. Maintain a low-residue, high-fiber diet.
- C. Clean the perianal area carefully after every bowel movement.
- D. Inspect the mouth and throat daily for signs of thrush.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a patient with cervical cancer is receiving external-beam radiation, the radiation to the abdomen can affect organs in its path, such as the bowel, leading to complications like frequent diarrhea. Cleaning the perianal area carefully after each bowel movement is crucial to decrease the risk of skin breakdown and infection. Testing stools for blood is not necessary since inflammation associated with radiation may lead to occult blood in stools. Maintaining a low-residue diet is actually recommended to prevent bowel irritation. Radiation to the abdomen does not cause stomatitis, so inspecting the mouth and throat for thrush is not directly related to the effects of external-beam radiation in this context.
3. Which signs or symptoms are characteristic of an adult client diagnosed with Cushing's syndrome?
- A. Husky voice and complaints of hoarseness.
- B. Warm, soft, moist, salmon-colored skin.
- C. Visible swelling of the neck, with no pain.
- D. Central-type obesity, with thin extremities.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Cushing's syndrome is characterized by central-type obesity with thin extremities, often referred to as 'truncal obesity.' This pattern of weight distribution is a key feature of Cushing's syndrome due to excessive cortisol levels, leading to fat accumulation in the face, neck, and abdomen, while the extremities remain relatively thin. The other options listed, such as husky voice, hoarseness, warm, soft, moist, salmon-colored skin, and visible swelling of the neck, are not typical findings associated with Cushing's syndrome.
4. What is the most likely diagnosis in a 30-year-old woman with right upper quadrant pain, fever, and jaundice, along with elevated white blood cell count and bilirubin levels?
- A. Acute hepatitis
- B. Acute cholecystitis
- C. Acute cholangitis
- D. Pancreatic cancer
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The combination of right upper quadrant pain, fever, jaundice, elevated white blood cell count, and bilirubin levels is classic for acute cholangitis, which is an infection of the bile ducts. Acute hepatitis typically presents with other liver function abnormalities, while acute cholecystitis is characterized by gallbladder inflammation. Pancreatic cancer would not typically present with these specific symptoms and lab findings.
5. A client with a new diagnosis of myasthenia gravis is prescribed pyridostigmine (Mestinon). Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching?
- A. Take the medication with food to prevent gastrointestinal upset.
- B. Take the medication 30 minutes before meals.
- C. Avoid dairy products while taking this medication.
- D. Take the medication at bedtime.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with myasthenia gravis prescribed pyridostigmine (Mestinon) is to take the medication 30 minutes before meals. This timing is crucial as it helps improve muscle strength for eating and swallowing. By taking the medication before meals, the client can experience enhanced muscle function during mealtime, which is especially important for managing the symptoms of myasthenia gravis. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Taking the medication with food may decrease its effectiveness, avoiding dairy products is not necessary, and taking the medication at bedtime does not coincide with the optimal timing for enhancing muscle function during meals.
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