a 45 year old woman presents with fatigue pruritus and jaundice laboratory tests reveal elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase levels imaging sho
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

Medical Surgical ATI Proctored Exam

1. A 45-year-old woman presents with fatigue, pruritus, and jaundice. Laboratory tests reveal elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase levels. Imaging shows a normal common bile duct but dilated intrahepatic bile ducts. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Based on the symptoms of fatigue, pruritus, and jaundice, along with elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase levels, and imaging findings of a normal common bile duct but dilated intrahepatic bile ducts, the most likely diagnosis is primary biliary cirrhosis. Primary sclerosing cholangitis presents with different imaging findings, often showing strictures and beading of the bile ducts. Gallstones typically cause obstruction in the biliary system, leading to different symptoms and imaging findings. Pancreatic cancer would present with different clinical features and imaging characteristics.

2. A client with hypothyroidism is started on levothyroxine (Synthroid). Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Levothyroxine is typically a lifelong therapy for hypothyroidism. It should not be discontinued even if symptoms improve because the medication helps replace the deficient thyroid hormone. Stopping the medication prematurely can lead to a recurrence of symptoms and potential complications. Patients must understand the importance of continuous levothyroxine therapy and the necessity of regular follow-up with their healthcare provider to monitor thyroid levels and adjust the dosage as needed.

3. What action should the nurse take to prevent tracheal tissue damage in a client with a tracheostomy?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To prevent tracheal tissue damage in a client with a tracheostomy, the nurse should use the minimal leak technique when inflating the cuff. This method helps avoid excessive pressure on the tracheal tissue, thereby reducing the risk of damage. Choice A is incorrect because securing the tracheostomy ties too tightly can cause pressure and tissue damage. Choice B is incorrect as changing the tracheostomy tube daily is not necessary unless there is a specific clinical indication. Choice D is incorrect as cleaning the stoma with hydrogen peroxide can irritate the skin and mucous membranes, potentially leading to damage.

4. The nurse is administering sevelamer (RenaGel) during lunch to a client with end-stage renal disease (ESRD). The client asks the nurse to bring the medication later. The nurse should describe which action of RenaGel as an explanation for taking it with meals?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Sevelamer (RenaGel) binds with phosphorus in foods to prevent its absorption, which is why it should be taken with meals. By taking RenaGel with meals, it can effectively bind with phosphorus from food, reducing the amount of phosphorus absorbed by the body, thus helping to manage hyperphosphatemia in clients with ESRD. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because RenaGel's primary action is to bind with phosphorus in foods, not related to preventing indigestion, promoting stomach emptying, or buffering hydrochloric acid.

5. A client diagnosed with major depressive disorder refuses to get out of bed, eat, or participate in group therapy. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In cases of major depressive disorder where the client is non-participatory and withdrawn, sitting with the client and providing support without pressuring them to engage in activities like eating or therapy is crucial. This approach respects the client's current state, builds trust, and creates a supportive environment that can eventually lead to the client opening up and accepting help.

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