Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving prednisone (Deltasone). Which side effect should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Hypoglycemia
• B. Infection
• C. Hypotension
• D. Weight loss

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Infection. Prednisone is an immunosuppressant medication commonly used in COPD to reduce inflammation. Due to its immunosuppressive effects, clients are at an increased risk of developing infections. Therefore, nurses should closely monitor clients receiving prednisone for signs and symptoms of infections to provide timely interventions.

2. A young adult female client is seen in the emergency department for a minor injury following a motor vehicle collision. She states she is very angry at the person who hit her car. What is the best nursing response?

• A. You are lucky to be alive. Be grateful no one was killed.'
• B. I understand your car was not seriously damaged.'
• C. You are upset that this incident has brought you here.'
• D. Have you ever been in the emergency department before?'

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Validating the client's feelings can help her express and manage her emotions effectively.

3. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which instruction should the nurse provide?

• A. Avoid green leafy vegetables.
• B. Take aspirin for headaches.
• C. Use a soft-bristled toothbrush.
• D. Limit fluid intake to 1 liter per day.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client on warfarin therapy, especially with a history of DVT, is to use a soft-bristled toothbrush. This is crucial to prevent gum bleeding, which is a risk due to the anticoagulant effects of warfarin. Green leafy vegetables are rich in vitamin K, which can interfere with warfarin's effectiveness, so they should be consumed consistently to maintain a balance. Aspirin is not recommended for headaches in clients on warfarin due to the increased risk of bleeding. Limiting fluid intake is not a standard instruction for clients on warfarin therapy.

4. For a patient with asthma, what is the primary purpose of prescribing salmeterol?

• A. Relieve acute bronchospasm
• B. Prevent asthma attacks
• C. Suppress cough
• D. Thin respiratory secretions

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Salmeterol is classified as a long-acting beta2-agonist, which is used to prevent asthma attacks by providing extended bronchodilation. It is not typically used for immediate relief of acute bronchospasm or for suppressing cough. Additionally, salmeterol does not have the primary purpose of thinning respiratory secretions.

5. A client's health history is suggestive of inflammatory bowel disease. Which of the following would suggest Crohn disease, rather than ulcerative colitis, as the cause of the client's signs and symptoms?

• A. A pattern of distinct exacerbations and remissions
• B. Severe diarrhea
• C. An absence of blood in stool
• D. Involvement of the rectal mucosa

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the context of inflammatory bowel disease, the absence of blood in stool is more indicative of Crohn disease. Crohn disease typically presents with non-bloody stools, while ulcerative colitis often involves bloody stools due to continuous mucosal inflammation confined to the colon and rectum.

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