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1. A patient with chronic pain is prescribed gabapentin. What is the primary purpose of this medication?
- A. Relieve neuropathic pain
- B. Reduce inflammation
- C. Enhance opioid analgesia
- D. Suppress cough
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Gabapentin is primarily prescribed to relieve neuropathic pain. It works by stabilizing electrical activity in the nerves, making it effective in managing conditions such as diabetic neuropathy, postherpetic neuralgia, and other forms of chronic pain originating from nerve damage.
2. The healthcare provider in the outpatient clinic has obtained health histories for these new patients. Which patient may need referral for genetic testing?
- A. 35-year-old patient whose maternal grandparents died after strokes at ages 90 and 96
- B. 18-year-old patient with a positive pregnancy test whose first child has cerebral palsy
- C. 34-year-old patient who has a sibling with newly diagnosed polycystic kidney disease
- D. 50-year-old patient with a history of cigarette smoking who is complaining of dyspnea
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The 34-year-old patient who has a sibling with newly diagnosed polycystic kidney disease may need referral for genetic testing. Polycystic kidney disease is an autosomal dominant disorder that can be asymptomatic until later in life. Presymptomatic testing can provide valuable information for guiding lifestyle and family planning decisions. The other patients do not present indications for genetic testing based on the information provided in their health histories. The 35-year-old patient's maternal grandparents' strokes are not indicative of a need for genetic testing. The 18-year-old patient's child having cerebral palsy is not a direct indication for genetic testing of the patient herself. The 50-year-old patient's symptoms are more likely related to smoking and respiratory issues, not genetic predisposition to a specific disease.
3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer digoxin 0.25 mg PO daily. The amount available is digoxin 0.125 mg tablets. How many tablets should the healthcare professional administer? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)
- A. 1
- B. 2
- C. 3
- D. 4
Correct answer: B
Rationale: To achieve the prescribed dose of 0.25 mg, the healthcare professional should administer 2 tablets of 0.125 mg each, totaling 0.25 mg.
4. In planning the turning schedule for a bedfast client, it is most important for the nurse to consider what assessment finding?
- A. 4+ pitting edema of both lower extremities.
- B. A Braden risk assessment scale rating score of ten.
- C. Warm, dry skin with a fever of 100° F.
- D. Hypoactive bowel sounds with infrequent bowel movements.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A low Braden score indicates a high risk for pressure ulcers, making regular turning crucial to prevent skin breakdown.
5. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with Raynaud's phenomenon. Which finding should the healthcare provider expect?
- A. Thickened and hardened skin.
- B. Painless ulcers on the fingertips.
- C. Episodes of cyanosis and pallor in the fingers.
- D. Red, scaly patches on the hands.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Raynaud's phenomenon is characterized by vasospasm, leading to episodes of cyanosis (bluish discoloration) and pallor (pale color) in the fingers or toes, often triggered by cold temperatures or stress. This occurs due to the reduced blood flow during vasospastic episodes, causing the discoloration. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect findings associated with other conditions and are not typical of Raynaud's phenomenon.
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