a patient with chronic pain is prescribed gabapentin what is the primary purpose of this medication
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1. A patient with chronic pain is prescribed gabapentin. What is the primary purpose of this medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Gabapentin is primarily prescribed to relieve neuropathic pain. It works by stabilizing electrical activity in the nerves, making it effective in managing conditions such as diabetic neuropathy, postherpetic neuralgia, and other forms of chronic pain originating from nerve damage.

2. A young adult female client is seen in the emergency department for a minor injury following a motor vehicle collision. She states she is very angry at the person who hit her car. What is the best nursing response?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Validating the client's feelings can help her express and manage her emotions effectively.

3. A highly successful individual presents to the community mental health center complaining of sleeplessness and anxiety over their financial status. What action should the nurse take to assist this client in diminishing their anxiety?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Teaching the individual to limit sugar and caffeine intake is an appropriate intervention to reduce anxiety and improve sleep quality. Sugar and caffeine can exacerbate anxiety symptoms and disrupt sleep patterns. By reducing their intake, the individual may experience a decrease in anxiety levels and better sleep. Encouraging daily rituals, reinforcing financial realities, or suggesting alcohol consumption before bed are not evidence-based strategies for managing anxiety and sleeplessness.

4. A 28-year-old woman at 34 weeks of gestation presents with elevated liver enzymes and pruritus. Labs reveal total bilirubin to be 4.2 mg/dL, AST 480 U/L, ALT 640 U/L, and alkaline phosphatase 232 U/L. Viral hepatitis serologies and ANA are negative. On physical examination, she is jaundiced, but has a normal blood pressure, no edema, and a soft abdomen. The fetus is in no distress. Which of the following is true?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The patient's presentation is consistent with intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy (ICP), a condition characterized by elevated liver enzymes, pruritus, and jaundice in the absence of other liver disease causes. ICP typically resolves promptly after delivery. Immediate delivery is indicated only for fetal distress, not maternal symptoms. ICP does have a significant risk of recurrence in subsequent pregnancies. Treatment options for ICP include cholestyramine and ursodeoxycholic acid. Screening for long-chain 3-hydroxyacyl-CoA dehydrogenase (LCHAD) deficiency is not indicated in this context as it is associated with acute fatty liver of pregnancy and HELLP syndrome, not ICP.

5. The healthcare provider is planning care for a non-potty-trained child with nephrotic syndrome. Which intervention provides the best means of determining fluid retention?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Daily weighing is the most accurate method to monitor fluid retention in a child with nephrotic syndrome. Changes in weight can indicate fluid retention or loss, which is crucial in managing nephrotic syndrome. Observing for pitting edema and measuring abdominal girth are also important assessments, but daily weighing provides more immediate and precise information about fluid status.

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