a patient with chronic pain is prescribed gabapentin what is the primary purpose of this medication
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1. A patient with chronic pain is prescribed gabapentin. What is the primary purpose of this medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Gabapentin is primarily prescribed to relieve neuropathic pain. It works by stabilizing electrical activity in the nerves, making it effective in managing conditions such as diabetic neuropathy, postherpetic neuralgia, and other forms of chronic pain originating from nerve damage.

2. The mother of a 9-month-old who was diagnosed with respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) yesterday calls the clinic to inquire if it will be all right to take her infant to the first birthday party of a friend's child the following day. What response should the nurse provide this mother?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct response is to advise the mother not to expose other children to the infected child. RSV is highly contagious, and transmission can occur even without direct oral contact. It is crucial to prevent the spread of the virus to protect other children from getting infected.

3. A client is receiving chemotherapy and is at risk for neutropenia. Which precaution should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Placing the client in a private room is crucial to protect them from infections due to their compromised immune system. Neutropenia, a common side effect of chemotherapy, decreases white blood cell count, making the client more susceptible to infections. By placing the client in a private room, exposure to pathogens from other individuals is minimized, reducing the risk of infection and helping maintain the client's health during this vulnerable period.

4. A client with hyperthyroidism is prescribed propylthiouracil (PTU). Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's discharge teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Propylthiouracil (PTU) can suppress bone marrow function, increasing the risk of infection, so it is important to report signs of infection promptly.

5. A 35-year-old woman presents with abdominal pain, diarrhea, and weight loss. She has a history of recurrent mouth ulcers and a perianal fistula. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The combination of symptoms including recurrent mouth ulcers, perianal fistula, abdominal pain, diarrhea, and weight loss strongly suggests Crohn's disease. These extra-intestinal manifestations are characteristic of Crohn's disease, a chronic inflammatory condition that can affect any part of the gastrointestinal tract. Ulcerative colitis primarily involves the colon, while irritable bowel syndrome is a functional disorder without the inflammatory component seen in Crohn's disease. Diverticulitis typically presents with localized left lower quadrant pain and is less likely to cause mouth ulcers and perianal fistulas.

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