ATI LPN
ATI PN Adult Medical Surgical 2019
1. A client with hyperthyroidism is prescribed propylthiouracil (PTU). Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's discharge teaching?
- A. Report any signs of infection, such as sore throat or fever, to your healthcare provider.'
- B. Increase your intake of iodine-rich foods, such as seafood and dairy products.'
- C. Take the medication on an empty stomach for better absorption.'
- D. You may experience weight gain and fatigue as side effects of the medication.'
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Propylthiouracil (PTU) can suppress bone marrow function, increasing the risk of infection, so it is important to report signs of infection promptly.
2. A nurse in a provider's office is collecting data from a preschooler. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Heart rate 80/min
- B. Heart rate 90/min
- C. Respiratory rate 28/min
- D. Heart rate 146/min
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A heart rate of 146/min is abnormal for a preschooler and indicates tachycardia, which should be reported to the provider. Choices A, B, and C fall within normal ranges for a preschooler's heart rate (80-120/min) and respiratory rate (22-34/min), so they do not require immediate reporting. Option D is the correct answer as it deviates significantly from the normal range and may indicate an underlying health issue that needs attention.
3. A healthcare provider is assisting in the care of a client who is having central venous pressure (CVP) measurements taken. The healthcare provider should assist by placing the bed in which position for the reading?
- A. Flat
- B. Semi-Fowler's
- C. Trendelenburg
- D. Reverse Trendelenburg
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Central venous pressure (CVP) measurements are most accurate when the client is lying flat, as this allows for a consistent baseline. Placing the bed flat ensures that the hydrostatic pressure within the vena cava is not affected by the client's position, providing a more precise reading. Choice B (Semi-Fowler's) elevates the head of the bed at a 30-45 degree angle, which could affect the accuracy of CVP readings. Choices C (Trendelenburg) and D (Reverse Trendelenburg) involve extreme positions that would not be suitable for obtaining accurate CVP measurements.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who is in labor and receiving electronic fetal monitoring. The nurse is reviewing the monitor tracing and notes early decelerations. What should the nurse expect?
- A. Fetal hypoxia
- B. Abruptio placentae
- C. Post-maturity
- D. Head compression
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When early decelerations are noted on the fetal monitor tracing, it indicates fetal head compression, which is typically a benign finding associated with the progress of labor. Early decelerations mirror the uterine contractions and are often not a cause for concern as they are a normal response to fetal head compression during contractions. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not align with the expected outcome of early decelerations. Fetal hypoxia, abruptio placentae, and post-maturity would present with different patterns on the fetal monitor tracing and would require different interventions.
5. A nurse is teaching a client about the use of gabapentin. Which of the following should be included?
- A. It can cause drowsiness
- B. It has no side effects
- C. It is a pain reliever
- D. It can be taken with food
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'It can cause drowsiness.' Gabapentin is known to cause drowsiness, and clients should be warned about this side effect. Choice B is incorrect because gabapentin, like any medication, can have side effects. Choice C is incorrect because although gabapentin is used for pain management, it is not classified as a pain reliever. Choice D is incorrect because gabapentin should be taken as prescribed by the healthcare provider, and specific instructions regarding food intake should be provided based on individual needs.
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