a patient with an acute asthma exacerbation is prescribed a short acting beta2 agonist saba what is the primary action of this medication
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ATI Learning System PN Medical Surgical Final Quizlet

1. What is the primary action of a short-acting beta2-agonist (SABA) prescribed to a patient with an acute asthma exacerbation?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Relieve bronchospasm. The primary action of short-acting beta2-agonists (SABAs) is to relieve bronchospasm. These medications are bronchodilators that work by opening the airways, making breathing easier for patients experiencing asthma exacerbations. By relieving bronchospasm, SABAs help improve airflow and alleviate symptoms of asthma such as wheezing and shortness of breath. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because SABAs do not primarily reduce inflammation, thin respiratory secretions, or suppress cough. While these actions may be part of asthma management, the immediate goal of using a SABA during an acute exacerbation is to quickly relieve bronchospasm and improve airflow.

2. Prior to elective surgery, a patient taking warfarin should receive which instruction regarding warfarin therapy?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Prior to elective surgery, a patient taking warfarin should be instructed to stop taking warfarin around one week before the procedure. This timeframe allows for the effects of warfarin to diminish, lowering the risk of excessive bleeding during surgery. Continuing warfarin until the day of surgery (Choice A) increases the risk of bleeding complications. Stopping warfarin three days before surgery (Choice B) may not provide enough time for the anticoagulant effects to subside. Switching to aspirin before surgery (Choice C) is not recommended as a substitute for warfarin in this context.

3. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with Raynaud's phenomenon. Which finding should the healthcare provider expect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Raynaud's phenomenon is characterized by vasospasm, leading to episodes of cyanosis (bluish discoloration) and pallor (pale color) in the fingers or toes, often triggered by cold temperatures or stress. This occurs due to the reduced blood flow during vasospastic episodes, causing the discoloration. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect findings associated with other conditions and are not typical of Raynaud's phenomenon.

4. What physical assessment data should the nurse consider a normal finding for a primigravida client who is 12 hours postpartum?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A pulse rate of 56 BPM can be considered a normal finding for a primigravida client who is 12 hours postpartum. Postpartum bradycardia can occur due to increased stroke volume and decreased vascular resistance after delivery. It is important for the nurse to monitor the client's vital signs and recognize that a lower pulse rate can be expected in the immediate postpartum period. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because a soft, spongy fundus may indicate uterine atony, saturating two perineal pads per hour is excessive bleeding, and unilateral lower leg pain could suggest deep vein thrombosis, all of which would require further assessment and intervention.

5. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with a chest tube. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Crepitus (subcutaneous emphysema) around the insertion site can indicate air leakage, requiring immediate intervention to prevent complications such as pneumothorax. This assessment finding suggests that there may be a break in the chest tube system, leading to air entering the pleural space. Prompt intervention is crucial to prevent respiratory compromise and further complications.

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