ATI LPN
ATI Learning System PN Medical Surgical Final Quizlet
1. What is the primary action of a short-acting beta2-agonist (SABA) prescribed to a patient with an acute asthma exacerbation?
- A. Reduce inflammation
- B. Relieve bronchospasm
- C. Thin respiratory secretions
- D. Suppress cough
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Relieve bronchospasm. The primary action of short-acting beta2-agonists (SABAs) is to relieve bronchospasm. These medications are bronchodilators that work by opening the airways, making breathing easier for patients experiencing asthma exacerbations. By relieving bronchospasm, SABAs help improve airflow and alleviate symptoms of asthma such as wheezing and shortness of breath. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because SABAs do not primarily reduce inflammation, thin respiratory secretions, or suppress cough. While these actions may be part of asthma management, the immediate goal of using a SABA during an acute exacerbation is to quickly relieve bronchospasm and improve airflow.
2. A patient who is receiving chemotherapy for breast cancer develops thrombocytopenia. What should the nurse include in the care plan?
- A. Encourage light exercise.
- B. Avoid intramuscular injections.
- C. Do not administer aspirin.
- D. Use a soft toothbrush for oral care.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Thrombocytopenia is a condition characterized by a low platelet count, which can lead to an increased risk of bleeding. To minimize this risk, patients with thrombocytopenia should avoid activities that can cause injury or bleeding, such as intramuscular injections. Encouraging light exercise can be beneficial, as it promotes circulation without increasing the risk of trauma. However, avoiding intramuscular injections is crucial to prevent bleeding episodes. Aspirin should be avoided as it can further impair platelet function, exacerbating the condition. Using a soft toothbrush for oral care is recommended to prevent gum bleeding in patients with thrombocytopenia.
3. Warning signs that indicate dehydration include all EXCEPT:
- A. Poor skin turgor
- B. Increased urine output
- C. Tachycardia
- D. Eager to drink
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Increased urine output is not a warning sign of dehydration; it typically decreases with dehydration. Dehydration often presents with poor skin turgor, tachycardia, and an increased sensation of thirst (eager to drink) as the body tries to compensate for fluid loss. Choices A, C, and D are all correct warning signs of dehydration. Poor skin turgor is a result of decreased skin elasticity due to fluid loss. Tachycardia, an elevated heart rate, can be a compensatory mechanism to maintain cardiac output in dehydration. Feeling eager to drink is a common symptom of dehydration as the body attempts to restore fluid balance.
4. A nurse is assisting with monitoring a client who is in labor and has spontaneous rupture of membranes following a vaginal examination. The provider reports the client's cervix is dilated to 1 cm with an unengaged presenting part. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Encourage the client to bear down
- B. Apply the external fetal monitor
- C. Provide the client with fluids
- D. Administer IV fluids
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, with the client's cervix dilated to only 1 cm and an unengaged presenting part, the priority action is to apply the external fetal monitor. This allows for continuous monitoring of the fetal heart rate during early labor, which is crucial for assessing fetal well-being. Encouraging the client to bear down is not appropriate at 1 cm dilation, as it may not be effective and can lead to exhaustion. Providing the client with fluids or administering IV fluids may be necessary for hydration, but the immediate concern is monitoring fetal well-being.
5. April, a 10-year-old admitted to inpatient pediatric care, has been becoming increasingly agitated and losing control in the day room. Time-out has proven to be ineffective for April to engage in self-reflection. April’s mother mentions using time-out up to 20 times a day. The nurse acknowledges that:
- A. Time-out is a crucial aspect of April’s baseline discipline.
- B. Time-out is no longer an effective intervention.
- C. April finds enjoyment in time-out and misbehaves to seek solitude.
- D. Time-out will have to be replaced with seclusion and restraint.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The scenario describes how April's behavior is not improving with the frequent use of time-out, indicating that it is no longer an effective intervention. When a strategy such as time-out loses its effectiveness due to overuse, it is crucial to explore alternative therapeutic measures to address the underlying issues effectively.
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