Nursing Elites

1. A 50-year-old man presents with progressive jaundice, dark urine, and pruritus. Imaging reveals a mass in the head of the pancreas. What is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Pancreatic cancer
• B. Chronic pancreatitis
• C. Gallstones
• D. Primary sclerosing cholangitis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The presentation of progressive jaundice, dark urine, and pruritus along with a pancreatic mass, particularly in the head of the pancreas, strongly suggests pancreatic cancer as the most likely diagnosis. These symptoms are classic for obstructive jaundice caused by a mass in the head of the pancreas, making pancreatic cancer the most fitting choice.

2. While assessing a 70-year-old female client with Alzheimer's disease, the nurse notes deep inflamed cracks at the corners of her mouth. What intervention should the nurse include in this client's plan of care?

• A. Apply a moisturizing cream to the affected areas.
• B. Encourage the client to consume foods rich in vitamin B.
• C. Notify the healthcare provider for further evaluation.
• D. Ensure that the client gets adequate B vitamins in foods or supplements.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Cracks at the corners of the mouth, known as angular cheilitis, can be a sign of vitamin B deficiency, specifically B2 (riboflavin) or B3 (niacin). The nurse should ensure that the client receives adequate B vitamins through foods rich in these nutrients or supplements to address the deficiency, which can help improve the condition of the client's mouth.

3. A 56-year-old woman presents to discuss the results of her recent upper endoscopy. She was having some mild abdominal pain, so she underwent the procedure, which revealed an ulcer in the antrum of the stomach. Biopsy of the lesion revealed the presence of H. pylori. All of the following statements regarding her condition are correct except

• A. H. pylori has been associated with gastric MALT (mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue)
• B. Reinfection is rare despite adequate treatment
• C. Triple drug therapy has been shown to be more effective than dual drug therapy
• D. If her H. pylori IgG antibody titer was elevated prior to therapy, it can be used to monitor treatment efficacy

Correct answer: B

Rationale: H. pylori is associated with a majority of peptic ulcer disease cases and has links to gastric MALT and adenocarcinoma. Triple drug therapy is more effective than dual therapy. Reinfection after adequate treatment is rare. While urea breath testing is a better diagnostic tool, quantitative serology can monitor treatment efficacy. A 30% decrease in IgG titer should occur post-therapy, indicating effectiveness.

4. The community mental health nurse is planning to visit four clients with schizophrenia today. Which client should the nurse see first?

• A. The mother who took her children from school because aliens were after them.
• B. The young man who has a history of substance abuse and no telephone.
• C. The newly diagnosed client who needs to be evaluated for medication compliance.
• D. The young woman who believes she is to blame for her recent miscarriage.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The mother who took her children from school due to delusions of aliens poses a significant risk to her children and herself. This situation requires immediate attention to ensure the safety and well-being of all involved. Choice B is concerning due to the history of substance abuse, but the immediate risk to life and safety as in Choice A takes precedence. Choice C, although important, does not present an immediate danger as the delusional belief of aliens. Choice D, while emotionally distressing, does not pose an immediate threat as the situation described in Choice A.

5. An older adult with a diagnosis of Alzheimer's disease has been experiencing fecal incontinence, with no recent change in stool character noted by the nurse. What is the nurse's most appropriate intervention?

• A. Keep a food diary to identify foods that worsen the client's symptoms
• B. Provide the client with a bland, low-residue diet
• C. Toilet the client on a frequent, scheduled basis
• D. Collaborate with the primary provider to secure an order for loperamide

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most appropriate intervention for an older adult with Alzheimer's disease experiencing fecal incontinence and no change in stool character is to toilet the client on a frequent, scheduled basis. Scheduled toileting can help manage incontinence by establishing a routine for bowel movements, which may aid in reducing episodes of fecal incontinence.

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