ATI LPN
ATI Adult Medical Surgical
1. What should the nurse include in patient teaching for a patient prescribed ceftriaxone for bacterial pneumonia?
- A. Take the medication as prescribed.
- B. Expect urine color changes.
- C. Complete the full course of the antibiotic.
- D. Avoid dairy products during treatment.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When educating a patient prescribed ceftriaxone for bacterial pneumonia, it is crucial to emphasize completing the full course of the antibiotic. Completing the full course helps ensure the infection is completely eradicated and reduces the risk of antibiotic resistance. Incomplete courses of antibiotics can lead to treatment failure and the development of resistant bacterial strains. Therefore, it is essential for patients to adhere to the prescribed treatment regimen to achieve optimal outcomes.
2. A client in acute renal failure has a serum potassium level of 6.3 mEq/L. What intervention can the nurse expect the healthcare provider to prescribe?
- A. Nitrofurantoin (Macrodantin) orally.
- B. Erythropoietin (Epogen) intravenously.
- C. Kayexalate retention enema.
- D. Azathioprine (Imuran) orally.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In acute renal failure with high serum potassium levels, the healthcare provider is likely to prescribe a Kayexalate retention enema. Kayexalate is a medication used to lower elevated potassium levels by promoting potassium excretion through the gastrointestinal tract, thus aiding in the management of hyperkalemia in clients with renal failure.
3. The healthcare provider is caring for a patient who is taking warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should the healthcare provider monitor closely?
- A. Platelet count.
- B. Prothrombin time (PT).
- C. Hemoglobin level.
- D. White blood cell count.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: When caring for a patient on warfarin, monitoring prothrombin time (PT) is crucial. PT helps assess the blood's ability to clot properly, ensuring the patient maintains therapeutic anticoagulation levels while minimizing bleeding risks. Platelet count (Choice A) is important but not the most critical for warfarin therapy. Hemoglobin level (Choice C) and white blood cell count (Choice D) are not directly related to monitoring the effects of warfarin.
4. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is scheduled for hemodialysis. Which pre-dialysis assessment finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider?
- A. Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L.
- B. Blood pressure of 180/90 mm Hg.
- C. Heart rate of 80 beats per minute.
- D. Serum sodium of 140 mEq/L.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A blood pressure of 180/90 mm Hg is elevated and should be reported to the healthcare provider before hemodialysis. Hypertension can have a significant impact on the effectiveness and safety of the dialysis treatment. Controlling blood pressure before the procedure is crucial to prevent complications during the dialysis session.
5. A client with a history of chronic alcohol use is admitted with confusion and an unsteady gait. Which deficiency should the nurse suspect?
- A. Thiamine (Vitamin B1)
- B. Cyanocobalamin (Vitamin B12)
- C. Folic acid
- D. Vitamin D
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is Thiamine (Vitamin B1). Chronic alcohol use can lead to thiamine deficiency, which can result in neurological symptoms such as confusion and an unsteady gait. Thiamine is essential for proper brain function and nerve conduction, and its deficiency is common in individuals with alcohol use disorder. Cyanocobalamin (Vitamin B12) deficiency can also present with neurological symptoms, but in this case, the patient's history of chronic alcohol use points more towards thiamine deficiency. Folic acid deficiency typically presents with symptoms like fatigue and megaloblastic anemia. Vitamin D deficiency is associated with bone health issues rather than neurological symptoms.
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