ATI LPN
Medical Surgical ATI Proctored Exam
1. A client with hepatic encephalopathy exhibits confusion, difficulty arousing from sleep, and rigid extremities. Based on these clinical findings, what stage of hepatic encephalopathy should the nurse document?
- A. Stage 1
- B. Stage 2
- C. Stage 3
- D. Stage 4
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Stage 3 hepatic encephalopathy is characterized by confusion, difficulty arousing from sleep, and rigidity of extremities. These symptoms indicate advanced manifestations of hepatic encephalopathy, requiring prompt intervention and monitoring to prevent further neurological deterioration.
2. Why is a low-protein diet recommended for a patient with renal failure?
- A. To prevent fluid overload
- B. To reduce nitrogenous waste
- C. To maintain electrolyte balance
- D. To prevent hyperglycemia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A low-protein diet is crucial for patients with renal failure to reduce the generation of nitrogenous waste products like urea and creatinine, which the compromised kidneys struggle to eliminate effectively. By limiting protein intake, the production of these waste products is decreased, lessening the burden on the kidneys and helping to manage the progression of renal failure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because a low-protein diet primarily aims to reduce the workload on the kidneys by decreasing the production of nitrogenous waste, not to prevent fluid overload, maintain electrolyte balance, or prevent hyperglycemia.
3. In acute pancreatitis, a client experiencing severe abdominal pain should have which enzyme level closely monitored?
- A. Serum amylase.
- B. Serum sodium.
- C. Serum calcium.
- D. Serum potassium.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In acute pancreatitis, serum amylase levels should be closely monitored. Elevated serum amylase levels are a key diagnostic marker for acute pancreatitis, aiding in the assessment and management of the patient's condition. Monitoring serum sodium, calcium, or potassium levels is not typically associated with acute pancreatitis and would not provide relevant information for this specific condition.
4. A client with newly diagnosed type 2 diabetes is preparing for discharge. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I will take my insulin shots only when my blood sugar is high
- B. I need to follow a balanced diet and exercise regularly
- C. I should monitor my blood sugar levels regularly
- D. I need to take my medication as prescribed by my doctor
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In type 2 diabetes, insulin therapy is typically not the first-line treatment. Patients should follow their prescribed treatment plan, which may or may not include insulin. Taking insulin shots only when blood sugar is high can lead to uncontrolled glucose levels and complications. It is important to adhere to the prescribed medication regimen to manage diabetes effectively.
5. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is experiencing respiratory distress. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Administer bronchodilators as prescribed.
- B. Encourage pursed-lip breathing.
- C. Position the client in a high Fowler's position.
- D. Obtain a stat arterial blood gas (ABG) sample.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a client with COPD experiencing respiratory distress, the priority intervention should be to position the client in a high Fowler's position. This position helps optimize lung expansion, improve oxygenation, and reduce the work of breathing. Administering bronchodilators and encouraging pursed-lip breathing are important interventions but positioning the client to enhance respiratory function takes precedence in this situation. Obtaining an ABG sample may provide valuable information but is not the initial priority when addressing respiratory distress.
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