ATI LPN
Medical Surgical ATI Proctored Exam
1. A client with hepatic encephalopathy exhibits confusion, difficulty arousing from sleep, and rigid extremities. Based on these clinical findings, what stage of hepatic encephalopathy should the nurse document?
- A. Stage 1
- B. Stage 2
- C. Stage 3
- D. Stage 4
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Stage 3 hepatic encephalopathy is characterized by confusion, difficulty arousing from sleep, and rigidity of extremities. These symptoms indicate advanced manifestations of hepatic encephalopathy, requiring prompt intervention and monitoring to prevent further neurological deterioration.
2. In which situation is it most important for the registered nurse (RN) working on a medical unit to provide direct supervision?
- A. A graduate nurse needs to access a client's implanted port to start an infusion of Ringer's Lactate.
- B. A postpartum nurse pulled to the unit needs to start a transfusion of packed red blood cells.
- C. A practical nurse is preparing to assist the healthcare provider with a lumbar puncture at the bedside.
- D. An unlicensed assistive personnel is preparing to weigh an obese bedfast client using a bed scale.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Direct supervision is essential when a complex task, such as accessing an implanted port, is being performed by a less experienced healthcare provider, in this case, a graduate nurse. This oversight ensures patient safety and proper execution of the procedure, especially when it is the nurse's first time performing such a task.
3. A patient with chronic pain is prescribed gabapentin. What is the primary purpose of this medication?
- A. Relieve neuropathic pain
- B. Reduce inflammation
- C. Enhance opioid analgesia
- D. Suppress cough
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Gabapentin is primarily prescribed to relieve neuropathic pain. It works by stabilizing electrical activity in the nerves, making it effective in managing conditions such as diabetic neuropathy, postherpetic neuralgia, and other forms of chronic pain originating from nerve damage.
4. A 40-year-old woman presents with fatigue, polyuria, and polydipsia. Laboratory tests reveal hyperglycemia and ketonuria. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Type 1 diabetes mellitus
- B. Type 2 diabetes mellitus
- C. Diabetes insipidus
- D. Hyperthyroidism
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The combination of symptoms including fatigue, polyuria, polydipsia, along with laboratory findings of hyperglycemia and ketonuria strongly suggest type 1 diabetes mellitus. In type 1 diabetes mellitus, there is a deficiency of insulin leading to high blood sugar levels (hyperglycemia) and the breakdown of fats producing ketones, causing ketonuria. Type 2 diabetes mellitus typically presents differently and is more common in older individuals. Diabetes insipidus is characterized by excessive thirst and urination due to a deficiency of antidiuretic hormone, distinct from the provided clinical scenario. Hyperthyroidism may present with some overlapping symptoms like fatigue, but it does not account for the specific laboratory findings of hyperglycemia and ketonuria seen in this case.
5. A patient with rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed methotrexate. What is an important teaching point for the nurse to provide?
- A. Take folic acid supplements as prescribed.
- B. Avoid alcohol completely.
- C. Expect to see immediate results.
- D. Limit fluid intake to 1 liter per day.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct teaching point for a patient prescribed methotrexate is to take folic acid supplements as prescribed. Methotrexate can lead to a folate deficiency, which is why supplementing with folic acid is essential to reduce the risk of side effects such as mouth sores, nausea, and liver problems.
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