a nurse is caring for a client with hepatic encephalopathy the nurses assessment reveals that the client exhibits episodes of confusion is difficult t
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

Medical Surgical ATI Proctored Exam

1. A client with hepatic encephalopathy exhibits confusion, difficulty arousing from sleep, and rigid extremities. Based on these clinical findings, what stage of hepatic encephalopathy should the nurse document?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Stage 3 hepatic encephalopathy is characterized by confusion, difficulty arousing from sleep, and rigidity of extremities. These symptoms indicate advanced manifestations of hepatic encephalopathy, requiring prompt intervention and monitoring to prevent further neurological deterioration.

2. The healthcare provider formulates a nursing diagnosis of 'High risk for ineffective airway clearance' for a client with myasthenia gravis. What is the most likely cause for this nursing diagnosis?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clients with myasthenia gravis commonly experience muscle weakness, including in the muscles used for coughing. This diminished cough effort can lead to ineffective airway clearance, increasing the risk of respiratory complications. Therefore, the most likely cause for the nursing diagnosis 'High risk for ineffective airway clearance' in a client with myasthenia gravis is the diminished cough effort due to muscle weakness.

3. A client with newly diagnosed hypertension is prescribed enalapril (Vasotec). Which instruction should the nurse provide to the client?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to provide the client taking enalapril (Vasotec) is to report any persistent cough to their healthcare provider. Enalapril can cause a side effect of a persistent cough, and it is essential for the healthcare provider to be notified if this occurs to evaluate the need for a medication adjustment or change. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing potassium-rich foods is not specifically related to enalapril use; there is no requirement to take enalapril with a full meal, and avoiding grapefruit juice is more relevant for medications metabolized by the CYP3A4 enzyme, not typically for enalapril.

4. A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed a low-protein diet. Which laboratory result should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the diet?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) levels should be monitored to assess the effectiveness of a low-protein diet in clients with chronic kidney disease. BUN levels reflect the breakdown of protein in the body, and a low-protein diet aims to reduce BUN levels to lessen the workload on the kidneys. Therefore, monitoring BUN levels is crucial in managing kidney function and evaluating the impact of dietary modifications. Serum potassium, serum calcium, and creatinine clearance are important parameters to monitor in clients with chronic kidney disease, but they are not specifically indicative of the effectiveness of a low-protein diet. Serum potassium levels are crucial in assessing electrolyte balance, serum calcium levels are important for bone health and nerve function, and creatinine clearance reflects kidney function overall, not just the impact of a low-protein diet.

5. The nurse is caring for a client with hyperthyroidism. Which intervention should the nurse implement to manage the client's condition?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Encouraging frequent rest periods is essential in managing hyperthyroidism as it helps address the fatigue and hypermetabolic state commonly associated with this condition. Rest is crucial to support the body's recovery and reduce the stress on the thyroid gland. While nutrition is important in managing hyperthyroidism, providing a high-calorie diet is not the priority intervention. Restricting fluid intake is not typically necessary unless there are specific indications such as heart failure. Administering a stool softener is not directly related to managing hyperthyroidism.

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