Nursing Elites

1. What is the primary cause of jaundice in a client with liver cirrhosis?

• A. Decreased bile production
• B. Increased bilirubin levels
• C. Hepatic inflammation
• D. Portal hypertension

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Jaundice in a client with liver cirrhosis is primarily caused by increased bilirubin levels. In liver cirrhosis, impaired liver function leads to the accumulation of bilirubin in the blood, resulting in jaundice. Bilirubin is a yellow pigment produced from the breakdown of red blood cells, and its elevation is a common manifestation of liver dysfunction. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. While decreased bile production can contribute to jaundice, in liver cirrhosis, the key factor is the buildup of bilirubin due to liver dysfunction, not a decrease in bile production. Hepatic inflammation and portal hypertension are associated with liver cirrhosis but are not the primary causes of jaundice in this context.

2. A male client is admitted to the neurological unit. He has just sustained a C-5 spinal cord injury. Which assessment finding of this client warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Is unable to feel sensation in the arms and hands.
• B. Has flaccid upper and lower extremities.
• C. Blood pressure is 110/70 and the apical pulse is 68.
• D. Respirations are shallow, labored, and 14 breaths/minute.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Respirations that are shallow, labored, and at 14 breaths/minute indicate potential respiratory compromise, which is a critical situation requiring immediate intervention to maintain adequate oxygenation and prevent respiratory failure.

3. Because the census is currently low in the Obstetrics (OB) unit, one of the nurses is sent to work on a medical-surgical unit for the day, or until the OB unit becomes busy. Which client assessment is best for the charge nurse to assign to the OB nurse?

• A. An adult who had a colon resection yesterday and has an IV.
• B. An older adult who has a fever of unknown origin.
• C. A woman who had an acute brain attack (stroke, CVA) 6 hours ago.
• D. A teenager with a femoral fracture who is in traction.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The OB nurse is most experienced in postoperative care, making the client who had a recent colon resection the most suitable assignment. This client would require care that aligns closely with the expertise and skills of the OB nurse, ensuring optimal patient outcomes and effective utilization of nursing resources.

4. Why is a low-protein diet recommended for a client with hepatic encephalopathy?

• A. Hyperglycemia
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Increased ammonia levels
• D. Electrolyte imbalance

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A low-protein diet is recommended for clients with hepatic encephalopathy to reduce ammonia levels. Ammonia, a byproduct of protein metabolism, can accumulate in the blood due to impaired liver function. Elevated ammonia levels can lead to worsening hepatic encephalopathy, a condition characterized by cognitive and neurological disturbances. Therefore, by limiting protein intake, the production of ammonia is reduced, thereby helping to manage hepatic encephalopathy. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because hepatic encephalopathy is not primarily related to hyperglycemia, hypoglycemia, or electrolyte imbalance. The focus is on reducing ammonia levels to improve the condition.

5. A client with a history of chronic heart failure is experiencing severe shortness of breath and has pink, frothy sputum. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Administer morphine sulfate.
• B. Place the client in a high Fowler's position.
• C. Initiate continuous ECG monitoring.
• D. Prepare the client for intubation.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with chronic heart failure experiencing severe shortness of breath and pink, frothy sputum, the priority action for the nurse is to place the client in a high Fowler's position. This position helps improve lung expansion, ease breathing, and enhance oxygenation by reducing venous return and decreasing preload on the heart. It is crucial to address the client's respiratory distress promptly before considering other interventions. Administering morphine sulfate (choice A) may be appropriate later to relieve anxiety and reduce the work of breathing, but positioning is the priority. Continuous ECG monitoring (choice C) and preparing for intubation (choice D) are important but secondary to addressing the respiratory distress and optimizing oxygenation.

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