ATI LPN
ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam 2019 Quizlet
1. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with a chest tube. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Intermittent bubbling in the water seal chamber.
- B. Drainage of 75 ml in the first hour post-insertion.
- C. Crepitus around the insertion site.
- D. Fluctuation of the water level in the water seal chamber with respiration.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Crepitus (subcutaneous emphysema) around the insertion site can indicate air leakage, requiring immediate intervention to prevent complications such as pneumothorax. This assessment finding suggests that there may be a break in the chest tube system, leading to air entering the pleural space. Prompt intervention is crucial to prevent respiratory compromise and further complications.
2. A 38-year-old male client collapsed at his outside construction job in Texas in July. His admitting vital signs to ICU are, BP 82/70, heart rate 140 beats/minute, urine output 10 ml/hr, skin cool to the touch. Pulmonary artery (PA) pressures are, PAWP 1, PAP 8/2, RAP -1, SVR 1600. What nursing action has the highest priority?
- A. Apply a hypothermia unit to stabilize core temperature.
- B. Increase the client's IV fluid rate to 200 ml/hr.
- C. Call the hospital chaplain to counsel the family.
- D. Draw blood cultures x3 to detect infection.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to increase the client's IV fluid rate to 200 ml/hr. The client's vital signs indicate signs of shock and hypovolemia, making fluid resuscitation the priority to address these conditions. Improving intravascular volume is crucial to stabilize the client's blood pressure, heart rate, and urine output, ultimately improving organ perfusion and addressing the underlying issue of hypovolemia.
3. What instructions should the nurse give to a patient with cervical cancer who is planned to receive external-beam radiation to prevent complications from the effects of the radiation?
- A. Test stools for the presence of blood.
- B. Maintain a low-residue, high-fiber diet.
- C. Clean the perianal area carefully after every bowel movement.
- D. Inspect the mouth and throat daily for signs of thrush.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a patient with cervical cancer is receiving external-beam radiation, the radiation to the abdomen can affect organs in its path, such as the bowel, leading to complications like frequent diarrhea. Cleaning the perianal area carefully after each bowel movement is crucial to decrease the risk of skin breakdown and infection. Testing stools for blood is not necessary since inflammation associated with radiation may lead to occult blood in stools. Maintaining a low-residue diet is actually recommended to prevent bowel irritation. Radiation to the abdomen does not cause stomatitis, so inspecting the mouth and throat for thrush is not directly related to the effects of external-beam radiation in this context.
4. A client with a new diagnosis of myasthenia gravis is prescribed pyridostigmine (Mestinon). Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching?
- A. Take the medication with food to prevent gastrointestinal upset.
- B. Take the medication 30 minutes before meals.
- C. Avoid dairy products while taking this medication.
- D. Take the medication at bedtime.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with myasthenia gravis prescribed pyridostigmine (Mestinon) is to take the medication 30 minutes before meals. This timing is crucial as it helps improve muscle strength for eating and swallowing. By taking the medication before meals, the client can experience enhanced muscle function during mealtime, which is especially important for managing the symptoms of myasthenia gravis. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Taking the medication with food may decrease its effectiveness, avoiding dairy products is not necessary, and taking the medication at bedtime does not coincide with the optimal timing for enhancing muscle function during meals.
5. In a patient with a history of chronic iron deficiency anemia requiring a recent blood transfusion and an extensive GI work-up, which statement is true based on their medications?
- A. A dedicated small bowel series has a high likelihood of being positive
- B. 81 mg of aspirin per day decreases the benefit of using a COX II inhibitor
- C. The patient should have a provocative arteriogram with heparin infusion to identify the source of blood loss
- D. Hormonal therapy has been shown to be effective in decreasing blood loss due to arteriovenous malformations
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Taking even a low dose of aspirin per day, such as 81 mg, can reduce the protective effect on the gastrointestinal mucosa that is gained from using a COX II selective inhibitor. Aspirin can increase the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding, which can counteract the benefits of COX II inhibitors in protecting the stomach lining.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access