Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with a chest tube. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Intermittent bubbling in the water seal chamber.
• B. Drainage of 75 ml in the first hour post-insertion.
• C. Crepitus around the insertion site.
• D. Fluctuation of the water level in the water seal chamber with respiration.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Crepitus (subcutaneous emphysema) around the insertion site can indicate air leakage, requiring immediate intervention to prevent complications such as pneumothorax. This assessment finding suggests that there may be a break in the chest tube system, leading to air entering the pleural space. Prompt intervention is crucial to prevent respiratory compromise and further complications.

2. The nurse is administering sevelamer (RenaGel) during lunch to a client with end-stage renal disease (ESRD). The client asks the nurse to bring the medication later. The nurse should describe which action of RenaGel as an explanation for taking it with meals?

• A. Prevents indigestion associated with the ingestion of spicy foods.
• B. Binds with phosphorus in foods and prevents absorption.
• C. Promotes stomach emptying and prevents gastric reflux.
• D. Buffers hydrochloric acid and prevents gastric erosion.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Sevelamer (RenaGel) binds with phosphorus in foods to prevent its absorption, which is why it should be taken with meals. By taking RenaGel with meals, it can effectively bind with phosphorus from food, reducing the amount of phosphorus absorbed by the body, thus helping to manage hyperphosphatemia in clients with ESRD. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because RenaGel's primary action is to bind with phosphorus in foods, not related to preventing indigestion, promoting stomach emptying, or buffering hydrochloric acid.

3. What instruction should the nurse include in the discharge teaching for a patient with hypothyroidism prescribed levothyroxine?

• A. Take the medication with meals.
• B. Take the medication in the morning on an empty stomach.
• C. Discontinue the medication if you feel better.
• D. Double the dose if a dose is missed.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a patient with hypothyroidism prescribed levothyroxine is to take the medication in the morning on an empty stomach to enhance absorption. Taking it with meals can interfere with absorption. Patients should not discontinue the medication without consulting their healthcare provider as it can lead to adverse effects. Doubling the dose if a dose is missed can increase the risk of side effects and overdosage. It is crucial for patients to follow the prescribed dosing schedule and consult their healthcare provider for any concerns or missed doses.

4. What side effect should be monitored for in a patient with chronic heart failure taking spironolactone?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hypernatremia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hyperkalemia. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic commonly used in patients with heart failure. One of the potential side effects of spironolactone therapy is hyperkalemia, which is an elevated level of potassium in the blood. Hyperkalemia can lead to serious cardiac arrhythmias, making it crucial for healthcare providers to monitor potassium levels closely. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because hypokalemia (low potassium levels), hyponatremia (low sodium levels), and hypernatremia (high sodium levels) are not typically associated with spironolactone use in patients with chronic heart failure.

5. A client is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Fruity breath odor.
• B. Blood glucose of 450 mg/dL.
• C. Deep, rapid respirations.
• D. Serum potassium of 5.2 mEq/L.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Deep, rapid respirations (Kussmaul breathing). This is a sign of severe acidosis commonly seen in diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) and requires immediate intervention. Kussmaul breathing helps to compensate for the metabolic acidosis by blowing off carbon dioxide. Prompt intervention is necessary to prevent further deterioration and potential respiratory failure. Fruity breath odor (Choice A) is a classic sign of DKA but does not require immediate intervention. While a blood glucose level of 450 mg/dL (Choice B) is high, it does not pose an immediate threat to the client's life. Serum potassium of 5.2 mEq/L (Choice D) is slightly elevated but not the most critical finding that requires immediate intervention in this scenario.

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