ATI LPN
ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam 2019 Quizlet
1. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with a chest tube. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Intermittent bubbling in the water seal chamber.
- B. Drainage of 75 ml in the first hour post-insertion.
- C. Crepitus around the insertion site.
- D. Fluctuation of the water level in the water seal chamber with respiration.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Crepitus (subcutaneous emphysema) around the insertion site can indicate air leakage, requiring immediate intervention to prevent complications such as pneumothorax. This assessment finding suggests that there may be a break in the chest tube system, leading to air entering the pleural space. Prompt intervention is crucial to prevent respiratory compromise and further complications.
2. A patient with anemia is prescribed ferrous sulfate. What advice should the nurse give regarding the administration of this medication?
- A. Take with dairy products to increase absorption.
- B. Take on an empty stomach for best absorption.
- C. Avoid vitamin C while taking this medication.
- D. Take before bedtime.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct advice for the administration of ferrous sulfate is to take it on an empty stomach for best absorption. This enhances the absorption of iron. If gastrointestinal upset occurs, the medication can be taken with food. Taking ferrous sulfate with dairy products is not recommended as calcium can inhibit iron absorption. Taking it before bedtime is also not recommended. Vitamin C can actually help with the absorption of iron and is often recommended to be taken alongside iron supplements to enhance absorption. Therefore, avoiding vitamin C while taking ferrous sulfate is not correct.
3. Which of the following statements about Helicobacter pylori (H. pylori) is false?
- A. H. pylori does not invade the gastric or duodenal epithelium
- B. H. pylori stimulates gastric acid secretion
- C. Eradication of H. pylori prevents adenocarcinoma of the stomach
- D. H. pylori produces a urease that splits urea into ammonia and CO2
Correct answer: C
Rationale: H. pylori is known to reside in the mucus layer of the stomach and does not invade the epithelium. It produces urease that splits urea into ammonia and CO2. This action helps in neutralizing the acidic environment and allows H. pylori to survive. Additionally, urease activity can be detected in diagnostic tests for H. pylori. The stimulation of gastric acid secretion and disruption of the protective mucus layer are mechanisms by which H. pylori promotes injury. While eradicating H. pylori infection has been associated with a decreased risk of developing gastric cancer, it does not prevent adenocarcinoma of the stomach entirely.
4. The patient has a calcium level of 12.1 mg/dL. Which nursing action should the nurse include on the care plan?
- A. Maintain the patient on bed rest.
- B. Auscultate lung sounds every 4 hours.
- C. Monitor for Trousseau's and Chvostek's signs.
- D. Encourage fluid intake up to 4000 mL every day.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to include on the care plan for a patient with a calcium level of 12.1 mg/dL is to encourage fluid intake up to 4000 mL every day. This is essential to decrease the risk for renal calculi associated with hypercalcemia. While bed rest is not necessary, ambulation is encouraged to help decrease the loss of calcium from the bone. Monitoring for Trousseau's and Chvostek's signs is more relevant when hypocalcemia is suspected. Auscultating lung sounds every shift is a routine assessment, not required every 4 hours unless there is a specific respiratory concern.
5. An 85-year-old male resident of an extended care facility reaches for the hand of an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) and tries to kiss her hand several times during his morning care. The UAP reports the incident to the charge nurse. What is the best assessment of the situation?
- A. This behavior can be considered sexual harassment and should be reported to the administration immediately.
- B. The UAP should be reassigned to another group of residents, preferably females only.
- C. The client may be suffering from touch deprivation and needs to know appropriate ways to express his need.
- D. The resident needs to understand the rules regarding unwanted touching of the staff and the consequences.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the resident's actions of reaching for the UAP's hand and trying to kiss it could indicate a need for touch rather than intentional sexual harassment. The best assessment is to consider the possibility that the client may be experiencing touch deprivation and is seeking appropriate ways to express his need for physical contact. Providing guidance on acceptable ways to seek physical affection can help address the underlying issue and improve the resident's interactions with the staff. Choice A is incorrect because assuming sexual harassment without understanding the context and potential reasons behind the behavior can lead to misinterpretation. Choice B is inappropriate as reassignment based on gender is not a solution and does not address the root cause of the behavior. Choice D is not the best approach as it focuses solely on setting boundaries without considering the resident's underlying need for touch.
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