the nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube which assessment finding requires immediate intervention
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ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam 2019 Quizlet

1. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with a chest tube. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Crepitus (subcutaneous emphysema) around the insertion site can indicate air leakage, requiring immediate intervention to prevent complications such as pneumothorax. This assessment finding suggests that there may be a break in the chest tube system, leading to air entering the pleural space. Prompt intervention is crucial to prevent respiratory compromise and further complications.

2. The nurse is administering sevelamer (RenaGel) during lunch to a client with end-stage renal disease (ESRD). The client asks the nurse to bring the medication later. The nurse should describe which action of RenaGel as an explanation for taking it with meals?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Sevelamer (RenaGel) binds with phosphorus in foods to prevent its absorption, which is why it should be taken with meals. By taking RenaGel with meals, it can effectively bind with phosphorus from food, reducing the amount of phosphorus absorbed by the body, thus helping to manage hyperphosphatemia in clients with ESRD. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because RenaGel's primary action is to bind with phosphorus in foods, not related to preventing indigestion, promoting stomach emptying, or buffering hydrochloric acid.

3. A client who has just started taking levodopa-carbidopa (Sinemet) for Parkinson's disease reports experiencing nausea. What should the nurse recommend to the client?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nausea is a common side effect of levodopa-carbidopa (Sinemet). Consuming a low-protein snack with the medication can help reduce nausea. The protein in food can compete with levodopa for absorption, so taking it with a low-protein snack may improve its effectiveness and reduce gastrointestinal side effects. Option A is incorrect as taking the medication on an empty stomach may exacerbate nausea. Option C is incorrect because increasing intake of dairy products is not recommended to alleviate nausea. Option D is incorrect because abruptly stopping the medication without healthcare provider guidance can lead to adverse effects.

4. A 45-year-old woman presents with fatigue, weight gain, and constipation. Laboratory tests reveal low TSH and high free T4 levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The presentation of low TSH and high free T4 levels is characteristic of hyperthyroidism, which is consistent with the symptoms of fatigue, weight gain, and constipation described in the case. In hyperthyroidism, the thyroid gland produces an excess of thyroid hormone leading to a hypermetabolic state, which can manifest with these symptoms.

5. A client with a history of chronic alcohol use is admitted with confusion and an unsteady gait. Which deficiency should the nurse suspect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Thiamine (Vitamin B1). Chronic alcohol use can lead to thiamine deficiency, which can result in neurological symptoms such as confusion and an unsteady gait. Thiamine is essential for proper brain function and nerve conduction, and its deficiency is common in individuals with alcohol use disorder. Cyanocobalamin (Vitamin B12) deficiency can also present with neurological symptoms, but in this case, the patient's history of chronic alcohol use points more towards thiamine deficiency. Folic acid deficiency typically presents with symptoms like fatigue and megaloblastic anemia. Vitamin D deficiency is associated with bone health issues rather than neurological symptoms.

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