Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with a chest tube. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Intermittent bubbling in the water seal chamber.
• B. Drainage of 75 ml in the first hour post-insertion.
• C. Crepitus around the insertion site.
• D. Fluctuation of the water level in the water seal chamber with respiration.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Crepitus (subcutaneous emphysema) around the insertion site can indicate air leakage, requiring immediate intervention to prevent complications such as pneumothorax. This assessment finding suggests that there may be a break in the chest tube system, leading to air entering the pleural space. Prompt intervention is crucial to prevent respiratory compromise and further complications.

2. In a patient with a history of chronic iron deficiency anemia requiring a recent blood transfusion and an extensive GI work-up, which statement is true based on their medications?

• A. A dedicated small bowel series has a high likelihood of being positive
• B. 81 mg of aspirin per day decreases the benefit of using a COX II inhibitor
• C. The patient should have a provocative arteriogram with heparin infusion to identify the source of blood loss
• D. Hormonal therapy has been shown to be effective in decreasing blood loss due to arteriovenous malformations

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Taking even a low dose of aspirin per day, such as 81 mg, can reduce the protective effect on the gastrointestinal mucosa that is gained from using a COX II selective inhibitor. Aspirin can increase the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding, which can counteract the benefits of COX II inhibitors in protecting the stomach lining.

3. A client with hepatic encephalopathy is being treated with lactulose. What is an expected outcome of this treatment?

• A. Reduction in blood ammonia levels
• B. Improvement in liver enzyme levels
• C. Decrease in bilirubin levels
• D. Increase in urine output

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lactulose is used to treat hepatic encephalopathy by reducing blood ammonia levels through promoting its excretion via the intestines. Elevated ammonia levels contribute to the development of encephalopathy symptoms, so by lowering them, the client's neurological status can improve.

4. A client with a newly created ileostomy has not had ostomy output for the past 12 hours and reports worsening nausea. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Facilitate a referral to the wound-ostomy-continence (WOC) nurse
• B. Report signs and symptoms of obstruction to the health care provider
• C. Encourage the client to mobilize to enhance mobility
• D. Contact the health care provider to obtain a swab of the stoma for culture

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse's priority action in this situation is to report signs and symptoms of possible obstruction to the healthcare provider. Lack of ostomy output and worsening nausea can indicate a potential obstruction, which requires immediate attention and intervention to prevent complications.

5. A client with hepatic encephalopathy exhibits confusion, difficulty arousing from sleep, and rigid extremities. Based on these clinical findings, what stage of hepatic encephalopathy should the nurse document?

• A. Stage 1
• B. Stage 2
• C. Stage 3
• D. Stage 4

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Stage 3 hepatic encephalopathy is characterized by confusion, difficulty arousing from sleep, and rigidity of extremities. These symptoms indicate advanced manifestations of hepatic encephalopathy, requiring prompt intervention and monitoring to prevent further neurological deterioration.

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