Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with a chest tube. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Intermittent bubbling in the water seal chamber.
• B. Drainage of 75 ml in the first hour post-insertion.
• C. Crepitus around the insertion site.
• D. Fluctuation of the water level in the water seal chamber with respiration.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Crepitus (subcutaneous emphysema) around the insertion site can indicate air leakage, requiring immediate intervention to prevent complications such as pneumothorax. This assessment finding suggests that there may be a break in the chest tube system, leading to air entering the pleural space. Prompt intervention is crucial to prevent respiratory compromise and further complications.

2. A client is on a mechanical ventilator. Which client response indicates that the neuromuscular blocker tubocurarine chloride (Tubarine) is effective?

• A. The client's extremities are paralyzed.
• B. The peripheral nerve stimulator causes twitching.
• C. The client clenches fist upon command.
• D. The client's Glasgow Coma Scale score is 14.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Tubocurarine chloride is a neuromuscular blocker that works by causing paralysis of skeletal muscles. Therefore, if the client's extremities are paralyzed, it indicates that the medication is effective in achieving the desired muscle relaxation necessary for mechanical ventilation. Choices B and C are incorrect as they suggest muscle activity, which would not be expected with the administration of a neuromuscular blocker. Choice D is unrelated to the effectiveness of tubocurarine chloride.

3. A 68-year-old man with a history of diabetes, hypertension, and coronary artery disease (s/p coronary artery bypass graft two years ago) presents to the emergency room with fevers and left-sided abdominal pain. His physical examination reveals a temperature of 101.5°F, pulse 96, and blood pressure of 135/80. His abdomen is soft with moderate left lower quadrant tenderness. There is no rebound or guarding. Bowel sounds are present. A CT scan is done which reveals inflammation around an area of the left colon. The next step in his workup/management should be

• A. Antibiotic therapy with ciprofloxacin and metronidazole
• B. Referral for urgent colonoscopy
• C. Referral to a surgeon for immediate hemicolectomy
• D. Barium enema

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The patient's presentation is consistent with diverticulitis without evidence of perforation or abscess formation on CT scan. During acute infections, procedures like barium enema and colonoscopy should be avoided to prevent the risk of perforation. Urgent surgery is not indicated initially. The appropriate next step is to start antibiotic therapy aimed at gram-negative aerobes and anaerobes, such as ciprofloxacin and metronidazole, which are the initial treatment of choice for diverticulitis.

4. The healthcare provider in the outpatient clinic has obtained health histories for these new patients. Which patient may need referral for genetic testing?

• A. 35-year-old patient whose maternal grandparents died after strokes at ages 90 and 96
• B. 18-year-old patient with a positive pregnancy test whose first child has cerebral palsy
• C. 34-year-old patient who has a sibling with newly diagnosed polycystic kidney disease
• D. 50-year-old patient with a history of cigarette smoking who is complaining of dyspnea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The 34-year-old patient who has a sibling with newly diagnosed polycystic kidney disease may need referral for genetic testing. Polycystic kidney disease is an autosomal dominant disorder that can be asymptomatic until later in life. Presymptomatic testing can provide valuable information for guiding lifestyle and family planning decisions. The other patients do not present indications for genetic testing based on the information provided in their health histories. The 35-year-old patient's maternal grandparents' strokes are not indicative of a need for genetic testing. The 18-year-old patient's child having cerebral palsy is not a direct indication for genetic testing of the patient herself. The 50-year-old patient's symptoms are more likely related to smoking and respiratory issues, not genetic predisposition to a specific disease.

5. Following a CVA, the nurse assesses that a client has developed dysphagia, hypoactive bowel sounds, and a firm, distended abdomen. Which prescription for the client should the nurse question?

• A. Continuous tube feeding at 65 ml/hr via gastrostomy.
• B. Total parenteral nutrition to be infused at 125 ml/hour.
• C. Nasogastric tube connected to low intermittent suction.
• D. Metoclopramide (Reglan) intermittent piggyback.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with dysphagia and gastrointestinal symptoms such as hypoactive bowel sounds and a firm, distended abdomen, continuous tube feeding might exacerbate the symptoms. This can lead to complications and should be questioned by the nurse.

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