ATI LPN
ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam 2019 Quizlet
1. A 60-year-old male client is admitted to the hospital with the complaint of right knee pain for the past week. His right knee and calf are warm and edematous. He has a history of diabetes and arthritis. Which neurological assessment action should the nurse perform for this client?
- A. Glasgow Coma Scale
- B. Assess pulses, paresthesia, and paralysis distal to the right knee
- C. Assess pulses, paresthesia, and paralysis proximal to the right knee
- D. Optic nerve using an ophthalmoscope
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should assess pulses, paresthesia, and paralysis distal to the right knee to evaluate for neurovascular compromise. This assessment helps determine the perfusion and sensation of the lower extremity, which is crucial in identifying potential vascular or nerve damage that may be causing the client's symptoms.
2. When implementing patient teaching for a patient admitted with hyperglycemia and newly diagnosed diabetes mellitus scheduled for discharge the second day after admission, what is the priority action for the nurse?
- A. Instruct about the increased risk of cardiovascular disease.
- B. Provide detailed information about dietary glucose control.
- C. Teach glucose self-monitoring and medication administration.
- D. Give information about the effects of exercise on glucose control.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The priority action for the nurse when time is limited is to focus on essential teaching. In this scenario, the patient should be educated on how to self-monitor glucose levels and administer medications to control glucose levels. This empowers the patient with immediate skills for managing their condition. Instructing about the increased risk of cardiovascular disease (choice A) is important but not as urgent as teaching self-monitoring and medication administration. Providing detailed information about dietary glucose control (choice B) can be beneficial but is secondary to ensuring the patient can monitor and manage their glucose levels. Teaching about the effects of exercise (choice D) is relevant but not as critical as immediate self-monitoring and medication administration education.
3. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which finding should the provider expect?
- A. Increased anteroposterior chest diameter.
- B. Decreased respiratory rate.
- C. Dull percussion sounds over the lungs.
- D. Hyperresonance on chest percussion.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased anteroposterior chest diameter. The increased anteroposterior chest diameter, often referred to as a barrel chest, is a common finding in clients with COPD due to hyperinflation of the lungs. This occurs because of the loss of lung elasticity and air trapping, leading to a more rounded chest shape. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Decreased respiratory rate is not typically associated with COPD; instead, an increased respiratory rate may be seen due to the body's compensatory mechanisms. Dull percussion sounds and hyperresonance on chest percussion are not characteristic findings in COPD. Dull percussion sounds may be indicative of consolidation or pleural effusion, while hyperresonance is more commonly associated with conditions like emphysema.
4. A male client in the day room becomes increasingly angry and aggressive when denied a day-pass. Which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Tell him he can have a day pass if he calms down.
- B. Put the client's behavior on extinction.
- C. Decrease the volume on the television set.
- D. Instruct the client to sit down and be quiet.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Instructing the client to sit down and be quiet is a direct and assertive approach that can help de-escalate the situation safely. It sets clear boundaries and expectations for the client's behavior, which may help reduce agitation and aggression in this scenario. Offering a day pass if the client calms down (Choice A) might reinforce the aggressive behavior. Putting the client's behavior on extinction (Choice B) involves not reinforcing the behavior, but it may not directly address the immediate safety concern. Decreasing the volume on the television set (Choice C) does not address the client's behavior directly and may not effectively manage the escalating situation.
5. A client with heart failure is receiving intravenous furosemide (Lasix). Which assessment finding indicates that the medication is having the desired effect?
- A. Decreased peripheral edema.
- B. Elevated blood pressure.
- C. Increased heart rate.
- D. Decreased urine output.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Decreased peripheral edema.' In a client with heart failure receiving furosemide, decreased peripheral edema indicates that the medication is effectively reducing fluid overload. Furosemide is a diuretic that helps the body eliminate excess fluid and salt through increased urine output, leading to a reduction in peripheral edema, which is a common symptom of heart failure. Monitoring and recognizing this improvement in edema are crucial in managing heart failure effectively.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access