Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for metoprolol. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Monitor your blood pressure daily.
• B. Take the medication with food.
• C. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
• D. Avoid consuming grapefruit juice.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, 'Monitor your blood pressure daily.' When a client is prescribed metoprolol, it is important to monitor blood pressure daily because the medication can cause hypotension, leading to low blood pressure. Regular monitoring allows for the early detection of any potential issues and adjustment of treatment if necessary. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Taking metoprolol with food is not necessary, increasing potassium-rich foods is not directly related to metoprolol therapy, and avoiding grapefruit juice is more relevant for certain other medications that interact with grapefruit.

2. The client with a new prescription for warfarin (Coumadin) is receiving teaching from the LPN/LVN. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the medication?

• A. I will avoid eating foods high in vitamin K, like spinach and broccoli.
• B. I will take aspirin instead of acetaminophen for headaches while on this medication.
• C. I can stop taking the medication once my symptoms improve.
• D. I will double my dose if I miss a dose to catch up.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Clients prescribed with warfarin (Coumadin) need to maintain a consistent intake of vitamin K and avoid sudden increases in foods rich in vitamin K as it can interfere with the effectiveness of the medication. Choice A, 'I will avoid eating foods high in vitamin K, like spinach and broccoli,' is the correct statement indicating an understanding of the medication. This choice demonstrates knowledge of the importance of consistent vitamin K intake to prevent fluctuations in warfarin's effectiveness. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B suggests a substitution that is not advised without consulting a healthcare provider. Choice C is incorrect as stopping warfarin suddenly can lead to serious health risks. Choice D is unsafe and incorrect since doubling the dose is not the correct action if a dose is missed.

3. A client with a history of angina pectoris reports chest pain while ambulating in the corridor. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Check the client's vital signs.
• B. Assist the client to sit or lie down.
• C. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin.
• D. Apply nasal oxygen at a rate of 2 L/min.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client with a history of angina pectoris experiences chest pain while ambulating, the priority action for the nurse is to assist the client to sit or lie down. This helps reduce the demand on the heart by decreasing physical exertion. Checking vital signs, administering medication, or applying oxygen can follow once the client is in a more comfortable position. Checking vital signs (Choice A) may be important but addressing the immediate discomfort by positioning the client comfortably takes precedence. Administering sublingual nitroglycerin (Choice C) is appropriate but should come after ensuring the client's comfort. Applying nasal oxygen (Choice D) can be beneficial, but it should not be the first action; assisting the client to sit or lie down is the initial priority.

4. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer a calcium channel blocker to a client with hypertension. What parameter should be checked before administering the medication?

• A. Apical pulse
• B. Serum calcium level
• C. Blood pressure
• D. Respiratory rate

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Before administering a calcium channel blocker to a client with hypertension, the healthcare provider should check the client's blood pressure. Calcium channel blockers are used to lower blood pressure, making it essential to assess the current blood pressure to ensure it is within the appropriate range for administration. Checking the apical pulse (choice A) is not the priority before administering a calcium channel blocker, as the focus should be on blood pressure. Serum calcium level (choice B) is not directly related to the administration of calcium channel blockers for hypertension. Respiratory rate (choice D) is not the primary parameter to check before administering a calcium channel blocker in this scenario.

5. The LPN/LVN is assisting with the care of a client who has been diagnosed with a myocardial infarction (MI). Which laboratory test result would the nurse expect to see elevated within the first 24 hours of the client's admission?

• A. Serum troponin
• B. Serum creatinine
• C. Serum sodium
• D. Serum albumin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Elevated serum troponin levels are indicative of myocardial damage and are commonly used as a diagnostic marker for myocardial infarction. Troponin levels typically rise within a few hours of an MI and remain elevated for several days, making it a crucial test for early detection and monitoring of cardiac injury. Serum creatinine is not typically elevated in the acute phase of a myocardial infarction. Serum sodium and serum albumin levels are not directly associated with myocardial infarction and are unlikely to be elevated in the first 24 hours following an MI.

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